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The chinese goods cost 1 to produce, and are sold for 10 in the west -ask any industrial manager, but I shouldn't lay too far. Where are the nine other dollars landing? If we say 2 to 5 end in the pocket of the retailer, where do we find the remaining at least 5 bucks in the trade statistics?
Assume that there are 10 intermediaries between the producer and the consumer. If each intermediary makes a 25% margin you get your 900% price increase. No single intermediary makes more than 200% of the original price (the $2 retailer makes in your example). The total GDP is 4600% of the production cost. Never underestimate the power of geometric progressions.

By the way, this is why the argument that "oil only makes up 2% of the GDP (or whatever %)" is fallacious. After oil input has fed several layers of intermediaries, each of them making a modest profit, the economic impact of oil is not commensurate with its GDP impact.

guaranteed to evoke a violent reaction from police is to challenge their right to "define the situation." --- David Graeber citing Marc Cooper

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Nov 22nd, 2005 at 06:54:01 AM EST
[ Parent ]
the benefit the consumer is getting in this whole equation.  he/she is buying goods at, say 10--30% lower than they would otherwise get them.  And I think we've learned from the US auto industry's collapse with Japanese competition, that these goods can be great quality,,,with cars, better.

Second, I don't know if you meant your comment on the "middleman" to be pejorative or not.  But the traders, the distributors, the marketeers, the transportation, the Internet that gives more visibility to smaller and foreign producers, etc. etc. etc. are critical to these products arriving in the US and Europe.  They are not production costs, but there are lots of real costs in there.  True in the beginning there may be some nice profit margins, but soon other suppliers and other channels of distribution start competing, and prices and margins fall.

by wchurchill on Tue Nov 22nd, 2005 at 12:51:51 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Please don't read any value judgements into this post of mine, especially since I use the neutral term intermediary instead of the loaded middleman (nobody talks about cutting out the intermediary).

I also make a point about the effect that adding a layer of intermediaries has on the GDP.

guaranteed to evoke a violent reaction from police is to challenge their right to "define the situation." --- David Graeber citing Marc Cooper

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Nov 22nd, 2005 at 12:58:25 PM EST
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clarification.  It was the layering comment that made me ask.  but I understand now.
by wchurchill on Tue Nov 22nd, 2005 at 01:16:51 PM EST
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THanks for your response, but I still wonder where those layers end in the trade statistics.
Transport is not so expensive, so long as it is not a bulk product. I remember reading some examples, where the shipping cost was astonishingly low.
For the others costs, I guess the intermediary can choose where he makes his invoices from. Are the dollars he cashes prone to end in America, even if they appears to be in the trade deficit today, or could they end somewhere else if you have a switch in the opinion about USA / dollar as a safe heaven?

La répartie est dans l'escalier. Elle revient de suite.
by lacordaire on Tue Nov 22nd, 2005 at 05:27:59 PM EST
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