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Why free trade has costs for developing countries - subs only I'm afraid, but I'll quote these two paragraphs:

Unfortunately, the evidence is not particularly persuasive. Even the World Bank estimates that removing rich countries' barriers to developing country exports would generate only very small income gains for the latter. When fully removed by 2015, developing countries as a group might experience a gross domestic product increase of 0.6 per cent. Almost all the gains would be concentrated in fewer than a dozen developing countries, and many would actually lose from rich country trade liberalisation in key sectors. The ending of the multi-fibre agreement early this year, for example, has hurt textile exporters across the developing world as super-efficient producers in China gobble up the market.

Moreover, the removal of producer or export subsidies in the west hurts countries that consume large quantities of the subsidised exports. Removing developing countries' own trade barriers may indeed help their exports. But the estimates of large income gains come from trade models that audaciously omit some significant costs and exaggerate the net gains. One such cost is the loss of tariff revenue, which often amounts to 10-20 per cent of government revenue. The revenue has to be made up by alternative taxes (such as sales or income tax), which have their own "distortionary" impact. Another cost omitted by the trade models is the handicap that lack of protection imposes on an infant industry sector. If the theory of comparative advantage worked, people and capital "released" from existing businesses would be re-employed in other, more "efficient" activities. But the theory assumes full employment, and therefore no significant transition costs. It simply assumes the problem away.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Thu Aug 11th, 2005 at 07:18:05 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I have to cut this short and so can only hit some high points.

First, to make it REAL obvious:  I accept the statement "Free Trade is not a panacea."

Speaking directly to Colman's post:

Not having access to the model I am unable to critique directly.  In general, one may say, if the economic model is static, Simple - as opposed to Complex, uses non-iterative variable value assignment, or disallows schema adjustment of the modeled economic actors (agents) the analysis is - to be kind - not very reliable.

Published reports are indicating the World Bank has started to turn away from, what may be deemed, the 'Simplisitic Top-Down' approach.  This may indicate the model does not suffer from the above flaws.  Again, without the model, it is impossible to determine.  

The sentence, "The ending of the multi-fibre agreement early this year, for example, has hurt textile exporters across the developing world as super-efficient producers in China gobble up the market." is a superb example of:

X now follows Y
Therefore, X will always follow Y

a fallacy in Applied Temporal Logic.  This fallacy could have been committed in the World Bank report or by the journalist.  Shrug

Also, "hurt" WHO?  "hurt" HOW?  and by what measure - GDP?  Caloric intake per person?  Dollar/Euro per Thug?  Access to cash (internal/external) market?  International Corporations scooping-up raw resources on the cheap?  (if so then ... ha, ha, ha pfffft.)

 

by ATinNM on Sat Aug 13th, 2005 at 03:19:56 PM EST
[ Parent ]

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