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I read recently that 1997 was a momentous election because it was the first time post WWII that power changed hands because of voting patterns and not because or a change in party alliances. Is that correct?

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
by Jerome a Paris (etg@eurotrib.com) on Sun Sep 18th, 2005 at 09:52:38 AM EST
1998.

Yes, it is true: 1998 were the first elections that dropped a government and chose a completely new government. Former changes of government were never complete (one party of a coalition always remained), and were always because of changes in party alliances.

  • 1966: CDU/FDP --> CDU/SPD
  • 1969: CDU/SPD --> SPD/FDP
  • 1982: SPD/FDP --> CDU/FDP
by Saturday (geckes(at)gmx.net) on Sun Sep 18th, 2005 at 10:07:43 AM EST
[ Parent ]
True, but somewhat misleading. From the time the CDU/CSU lost its absolute majority to the rise of the Greens the only way a government could be formed was with two of the three existing parties; the kind of complete changeover that you saw in 1998 was simply a mathematical impossibility.
by MarekNYC on Sun Sep 18th, 2005 at 12:54:05 PM EST
[ Parent ]
it would have been the case if one or two parties in opposition won the absolute majority in a single election.
by Saturday (geckes(at)gmx.net) on Sun Sep 18th, 2005 at 01:38:34 PM EST
[ Parent ]

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