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Can you give an example of a scenario in which the President and the parliament have differed on policy and the PM has not acted in the interest of the President but of the National Assembly instead, trumping the President's power?  How would this work?  Why would the PM not represent the President's agenda?  Who has veto power, does the PM cast deciding votes, or is it mostly a position of influence and lobbying (when pres. has majority) and diplomacy (during "cohabitation")?

Also, I am confused again.  Upthread, afew states that the President chooses the PM, not the parliament:

In France, like in the US, the head of state is an elected president who does have a lot of political power. That, among others, of appointing the executive.
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(and)
the French pres chooses a PM who draws up a list of ministers for approval (in fact the pres does most of the choosing).

and you say:

the executive power is in fact vested with the PM, chosen by the National Assembly.

Even during "cohabitation" the President still picks the PM, just from a different party.  Who has the final say on policies?  The President or the PM?  

Those who can make you believe absurdities can make you commit atrocities. -Voltaire

by p------- on Wed May 10th, 2006 at 01:09:40 PM EST
[ Parent ]
The PM, after being appointed, goes before the National Assembly, outlines his governments policy, and seeks a vote of confidence. I think this is what Jérôme means by "chosen by the National Assembly".

But the president chooses the Prime Minister. He doesn't even have to take a PM from the political world. For example, Giscard d'Estaing appointed Raymond Barre PM in 1976 on his status as an economist, not as a political figure. As long as there's a parliamentary majority that will support the government and vote its bills, it's OK.

by afew (afew(a in a circle)eurotrib_dot_com) on Wed May 10th, 2006 at 01:48:52 PM EST
[ Parent ]

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