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Before I make a fool of myself ranting here, I should say that I'm not completely understanding the measure "corporate profits as a percentage of GDP." It looks simple at first, but I have no idea what the historical forces are.

In particular, what are the other major parts of GDP?

I guess wages. But there must be something else?

In the 60s, unions were stronger in the US, wages seemed to be at a relative high, but on this graph, corporate profits were too (as a % of GDP.)

Since then, wages have been stagnant, so it's hard to believe they have increased as a % of GDP. We have the figures for fluctuating corporate profit. Where did the other bit go?

by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Mon Jun 5th, 2006 at 07:02:16 AM EST
Most of it (60-70% or so) is in the form of wages. I need to check for the rest.

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
by Jerome a Paris (jeromeguillet@yahoo.fr) on Mon Jun 5th, 2006 at 08:04:40 AM EST
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