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So let's test the hypothesis that the Hillsborough machine counts were not reversed. We start by redoing the above plot, with machine counts reversed. I added warnings to the plot in three different places so people can't say they are being misled.



We have met the enemy, and he is us — Pogo

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 07:26:47 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Please be patient with the slower amongst us...

I read the above two charts as saying in chart 1) that clinton's lead is positively correlated both with ward size and count method (machine).

Flipping count method virtually eliminates any correlation between Clinton's lead and ward size.

Ergo - Clinton's lead is actually correlated with ward size, but because that also correlates with count method, it has been confused with the correlation with count method.

Therefore there is no count method fraud.

But why is there such a strong correlation between ward size and clintons's lead?  Can it be explained by demographics, or is it easier to stuff (and hide the stuffing) of a ballot box with extra ballots in a larger ward?

However, for the correlation between Clinton's lead and count size to be so "smooth", the amount of stuffing would also have to be proportionate to ward size.  Do we really think that a fraudster would be that resourceful and clever?

I vote demographic factors...as the more likely explanation, but which ones?  Gender, education, income, race, class.....???  Do we have enough demographic data to come to a conclusion?

Index of Frank's Diaries

by Frank Schnittger (mail Frankschnittger at hot dotty communists) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 08:09:51 AM EST
[ Parent ]
It appears just about every democraphic factor that has been tried, including the size of the precinct both as a continuous variable and as a large vs. small categorical variable, has failed to remove the Diebold effect. I am not sure gender has been tried, though. I am also not sure that the regressions involving both size and method have been carried out properly.
However, for the correlation between Clinton's lead and count size to be so "smooth", the amount of stuffing would also have to be proportionate to ward size.  Do we really think that a fraudster would be that resourceful and clever?
No, in this case the suggestion is a simple reversal of the vote counts between Clinton and Obama.

Flipping count method virtually eliminates any correlation between Clinton's lead and ward size.

Ergo - Clinton's lead is actually correlated with ward size, but because that also correlates with count method, it has been confused with the correlation with count method.

No, this is not "flipping count method". It is flipping the sign of the lead between Clinton and Obama for one of the two methods.

We have met the enemy, and he is us — Pogo
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 11:19:57 AM EST
[ Parent ]
As a first test, the distribution of dots is:

      Above Below Total
Black   3    11    14
Red     6    30    36
Total   9    41    50

We can do a two-way chi-square test for the independence of red/black and above/below (unfortunately the 3 is a little too low, but we'll go ahead anyway). The expected values are

      Above Below Total
Black  2.52 11.48  14
Red    6.48 29.52  36
Total   9    41    50

The chi-square contributions are

      Above Below Total
Black  0.09  0.02  0.11
Red    0.04  0.01  0.05
Total  0.13  0.03  0.16

This has a p-value of 69%. That is, a pretty good fit.

We have met the enemy, and he is us — Pogo
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 08:23:39 AM EST
[ Parent ]
For fun, rather than vote differential vs. ward size, I plot vote differential vs. democratic/republican ratio in total votes. Top plot, numbers 'as they are'. Bottom plot, machine vote flipped.
Numbers as they are, opposite trends for machines/hand-count with ratio of dem. votes. Visually quite striking, top vs. bottom.
by someone (s0me1smail(a)gmail(d)com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 09:23:08 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Top chart shows clinton doing better in predominantly Democratic wards - as one would expect - given apparent independent preference for Obama.

Bottom chart shows clinton doing worse in predominantly Democratic wards - as one would not expect

therefore the vote switch hypothesis is not supported?

Index of Frank's Diaries

by Frank Schnittger (mail Frankschnittger at hot dotty communists) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 09:35:34 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Top chart shows Clinton doing better in machine counted dem. wards, and Obama doing better in hand counted dem. wards. Note, this is not strictly dem. wards, it is the ones with more people voting in the democratic primary. Those people could be either registered democrats or independents:
New Hampshire primary - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Undeclared voters -- those not registered with any party -- can vote in either party primary.
...
Additionally, as of 2002, 25.6% of New Hampshire residents are registered Democrats and 36.7% are Republicans, with 37.7% of New Hampshire voters registered as "undeclared" independents. This plurality of independents is a major reason why New Hampshire is considered a swing state in general U.S. presidential elections.
by someone (s0me1smail(a)gmail(d)com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 09:52:08 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Now let's apply the same nonparametric test to the data with the machine counts flipped. The result is quite different:

        Wilcoxon rank sum test

data:  (Clinton..d - Obama..d)[machines] and (Obama..d - Clinton..d)[!machines]
W = 234, p-value = 0.7086
alternative hypothesis: true mu is not equal to 0
95 percent confidence interval:
 -0.10751315  0.07106908
sample estimates:
difference in location
            -0.0175131

This means that one cannot reject the hypothesis that the hand counts and the reversed machine counts have the same distribution.

We have met the enemy, and he is us — Pogo
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Jan 17th, 2008 at 11:46:27 AM EST
[ Parent ]

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