Display:
What's the ratio in Spain of water used for urban purposes compared to agricultural uses?

Here in Colorado, most of the available water (runoff from snowmelt) is used for agriculture--about 85% I believe. When the cities cry out for more water, the farmers in marginal areas sell their water rights to the cities, which then causes the irrigated farmland to revert to its pre-colonial (i.e. pre-1900) status. That status was basically desert.

But there is quite a bit of support for the idea that areas like eastern Colorado should never have been used for agriculture in the first place. These areas are good for bison herds and native dryland grasses. That's the whole "Buffalo Commons" theory.

So here the conflict is between those who think that irrigated agriculture should be supported by putting limits on urban growth, and those who think that irrigating the desert was a dumb idea in the first place...

by asdf on Sat Mar 29th, 2008 at 08:17:26 PM EST
In Spain nearly 80% of water is used in agriculture with domestic consumption of 14% and industrial use at 6%. Of the 20% of water not used for agriculture it is estimated that nearly 18% of that water is wasted through leaky pipes and system breakdowns. Most irrigation is inefficient, flooding fields not drip systems. The problem is complicated by the fact that Spanish water rates on average are a fraction of what they are in other European countries.

"My True Religion Is Kindness" -- The Dalai Lama
by JohnnyRook (johnnyrook1@gmail.com) on Sat Mar 29th, 2008 at 09:31:17 PM EST
[ Parent ]

Display:
Login
. Make a new account
. Reset password
Debates
Campaigns
Occasional Series
Agriculture
by afew - Sep 2

Anglo Disease
by Migeru - Sep 2