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Can one you smart people explain to me why

-- in 2000, 1 barrel = $60 or 72 euros at the then exgange rate of $1 = 1.2 euros, and the price at the pump was 0.82 euros/liter

-- and in 2008, 1 barrel = $110 or 70.40 euros at the exchange rate of $1 = 0.64 euros, and the price at the pump which should be the same or even lower is 1.28 euro/liter ?

Seriously.

by Lupin on Thu Jun 5th, 2008 at 02:40:11 AM EST
Possibly because a lot of international transactions in gas and distilled petroleum products (gasoline and diesel) are priced off oil futures.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Jun 5th, 2008 at 02:43:47 AM EST
[ Parent ]
In 2000 oil prices briefly topped 30$ per barrel, but where never even close to 40$.

Check DoDo's post on 70€ per barrel.

Vencit omnia veritas.

by Luis de Sousa (luis[dot]a[dot]de[dot]sousa[at]gmail[dot]com) on Thu Jun 5th, 2008 at 03:31:44 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Because the price at the pump is not fixed by competition to the lowest price, but as a sort of social negotiation. If there is noise in the media about oil rising, the price will be raised ; but if there is no noise that oil or $ is going down, no real reason to drop prices.

Also, in France in 2000 there was the "floating TIPP" which means that the tax was going down if gas prices went too high. Most probable reason.

Un roi sans divertissement est un homme plein de misères

by linca (antonin POINT lucas AROBASE gmail.com) on Thu Jun 5th, 2008 at 05:33:09 AM EST
[ Parent ]
in 2000, 1 barrel = $60

To which I can only say, huh? $60 was reached for the first time on 23 June 2005.

*Lunatic*, n.
One whose delusions are out of fashion.

by DoDo on Thu Jun 5th, 2008 at 11:16:29 AM EST
[ Parent ]

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