Absolutely.  No one's going to argue that fact.  But then, I don't know what your point is.  Because a few lines up you are saying US and UK are Anglo, but French and German are not.  You are making the argument that these countries are distinguished from each other by their economics.  Which is fine, but these countries are no longer defined by race.  Now you are making the argument that within one country, races are distinguished from each other by their economic welfare.  Again, true.  But true of most countries too, I think.  Dark skinned people generally get the short end of the stick regardless the economic system they live in.  So ... what makes this "disease" "Anglo?"  

I'm not just arguing for the sake of argument.  I really am wanting to understand what you're talking about when YOU say "Anglo."  To me it sounds either ethnically distinct, when it isn't actually an ethnic matter, or like some outdated slang to refer to part of the world which you still see as implicitly connected, but whose inhabitants don't necessarily agree with you on that matter.  

"Pretending that you already know the answer when you don't is not actually very helpful." ~Migeru.