Display:
So how could we tell whether a future decline was the result of climate change or peak oil?  At first it seems a straightforward question, but consider that the causes of last year's oil price spike are still disputed, and the fact that people are still arguing about exactly what amount of climate change recorded is due to CO2 vs aerosols etc.
by njh on Sun Dec 13th, 2009 at 06:22:04 AM EST
Peak oil means the maximum level of production that will ever be reached. Peak oil does not cause any decline, it's rather being past it that necessarily means experiencing a decline from that peak level.

Now, maybe your question was if the decline will be due to climate change or to scarcity. At the moment, I'd say hardly any decline can be attributed to climate change fighting, except in countries that have either heavily taxed carbon emission (Sweden), or strongly subsidised alternative energy production.

Earth provides enough to satisfy every man's need, but not every man's greed. Gandhi

by Cyrille (cyrillev domain yahoo.fr) on Sun Dec 13th, 2009 at 06:30:52 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I meant decline of 'western civilisation'.
by njh on Sun Dec 13th, 2009 at 05:03:38 PM EST
[ Parent ]
A rule of thumb would be to look at the price spikes (ex taxes) indicating oil shocks. If we have many such price spikes, we are supply-constrained (that is, production is dropping because we cannot get more oil out of the ground). If we have few such price spikes, we are demand-constrained (that is, production is dropping because people are not allowed to consume as much oil due to global warming regulations).

An individual spike may be put down to speculators, but when you have five or ten in the space of a decade and a half, it's a trend.

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Sun Dec 13th, 2009 at 10:22:55 AM EST
[ Parent ]

Display:
Login
. Make a new account
. Reset password
Occasional Series