In feudal system, i believe, the monarch owned all land. He then gave this land to rule to different "government" institutions: The church, military, university (perhaps monarch ruled directly some land) etc. These institutions collected rent (taxes) from peasants and this way the peasants supported these institutions. The development that lead to renaissance (science, art, military) etc. happened in these institutions. Rents provided the "taxes" and the peasants could keep more of their labour. Perhaps even then peasants had savings and this because there was no other "taxer", the landowner.
It's been a while since I read about feudal economics and political structures, but IIRC, nobody 'owned' the land. Rather everybody had a set of rights and obligations relating to specific areas of land. What exactly those were depended on whether you were a noble or a peasant, and in the specific time and place you were operating. Furthermore, the nobility was organized in a hierarchical pattern with a set of rights and obligations relative to each other (and to the serfs and others on a given territory). Land could not be bought or sold. The king, or whatever the local top dog was called, had the allegiance of a set of nobles, plus direct control and rights on his own royal lands where he simply functioned as a noble. There were also royal courts which provided the opportunity for people to sue each other over violating their legal obligations. The Church had similar noble style rights on certain lands, plus tithes. Among the duties of a feudal lord was military service and provision of a certain set number of men, plus administration and justice. The territory of a 'country' was simply the collected fiefdoms of the various nobles who owed allegiance to a given suzerain.
The one place where the king did own all the lands was Tsarist Russia. Though even there in practice he tended to give feudal style hereditary rights to various nobles.
In fact property is not an object it is a relationship.
As Bentham pointed out we should in fact refer to eg land as "the object of a man's property" ie an object which is "proper" to the man.
Property is that bundle of rights and obligations which go with land. In England & Wales (Scotland is a bit different) the Queen technically owns all the land, and a fair chunk of it she owns in practice.
Since a simplification in 1925 we peasants now have two alternative types of tenure (there used to be all sorts of feudal complexities).
Freehold - an absolute, permanent - well,as long as you live and then it passes to your heirs if you have any, but if you have none, and do not have a will, it goes to the Crown....
Leasehold - for a temporary or defined period.
Beyond these statutory rights there are complexities in relation to rights of use involving Trust law ( a goldmine for lawyers) or contractual rights of occupation based on other statutes, eg through membership of a housing Coop which has a freehold or leasehold.
I am identifying a new option, which is keep land permanently in the stewardship of a "Custodian" and to encapsulate the property relationship in an "Open" corporate.
It is then possible to share the rights, benefits and obligations between stakeholders in new ways - particularly "Any economic unit can emit money. The serious problem is to get it accepted" Hyman Minsky
The following review excerpt clarifies the feudal/patrimonial distinctions.
[In Pipes' view], Russia differed from all other European countries because, even after the monumental attempt of Peter the Great to transform it in conformity with the Western model, its rulers clung stubbornly and immutably to their own autocratic privileges instead of evolving along representative and democratic lines. In an influential book, Russia Under the Old Regime, which appeared in 1974, Pipes expounded a wide-ranging theory that endeavored to explain this anomaly. Briefly stated, it was a view of Russian society as being "patrimonial," a term initially used by Hobbes and then taken over and amplified by Weber. What it means is that when "the prince organizes his political power ... in the same essential manner as he does his authority over his household, there we speak of a patrimonial state structure." The czar thus "owned" everything within the state, which was simply considered his own property. No one individual or group had any right to counteract his power, nor was any distinction made between society and the state. Such a regime is different from despotism because "a despot violates his subjects' property rights; a patrimonial ruler does not even acknowledge their existence." In his new book Pipes cites Machiavelli, who in the sixteenth century contrasted the sultan of Turkey with the king of France by pointing out that the former was "a ruler who treated his subjects like slaves"; and Russia was much closer to Turkey in this respect than to any European country. This "patrimonial" mentality continued to dominate Russian politics up through the collapse of the Soviet Union, and seems to have found a new lease on life under Vladimir Putin. Other factors also enter, such as the submissive habits inculcated by the Mongol conquest of Russia for two centuries (and, by contrast, the influence of Roman law on European monarchies). Even feudalism in the West played a part, because it involved a contract between lord and vassal, with mutual obligations on both sides that theoretically placed restraints on the power of the lord -- something totally unknown in Russia. But it was the control of the purse strings that made the most crucial difference. A whole host of authorities, beginning in the thirteenth century, are cited by Pipes to illustrate "the sanctity of private property [as] an axiom of European political thought and practice."
Briefly stated, it was a view of Russian society as being "patrimonial," a term initially used by Hobbes and then taken over and amplified by Weber. What it means is that when "the prince organizes his political power ... in the same essential manner as he does his authority over his household, there we speak of a patrimonial state structure." The czar thus "owned" everything within the state, which was simply considered his own property. No one individual or group had any right to counteract his power, nor was any distinction made between society and the state. Such a regime is different from despotism because "a despot violates his subjects' property rights; a patrimonial ruler does not even acknowledge their existence." In his new book Pipes cites Machiavelli, who in the sixteenth century contrasted the sultan of Turkey with the king of France by pointing out that the former was "a ruler who treated his subjects like slaves"; and Russia was much closer to Turkey in this respect than to any European country. This "patrimonial" mentality continued to dominate Russian politics up through the collapse of the Soviet Union, and seems to have found a new lease on life under Vladimir Putin.
Other factors also enter, such as the submissive habits inculcated by the Mongol conquest of Russia for two centuries (and, by contrast, the influence of Roman law on European monarchies). Even feudalism in the West played a part, because it involved a contract between lord and vassal, with mutual obligations on both sides that theoretically placed restraints on the power of the lord -- something totally unknown in Russia. But it was the control of the purse strings that made the most crucial difference. A whole host of authorities, beginning in the thirteenth century, are cited by Pipes to illustrate "the sanctity of private property [as] an axiom of European political thought and practice."
You seem to bring him up a lot. Which is fine. So long as you read him with a critical eye and an understanding of his glorious past and and life-long crusade regarding Russia. :) That man is a piece or work...
(Totally OT: given all this discussion of the patrimonial system in Russia, I thought I'd throw in the fact that in Tsarist Russia, property was passed down through women, and Russian women had remarkable property ownership rights compared to much of the western world. I know that isn't how you are using "patrimonial," exactly. But worth mentioning in all this talk of "patrimony.") "Talking nonsense is the sole privilege mankind possesses over the other organisms." -Dostoevsky
I thought I'd throw in the fact that in Tsarist Russia, property was passed down through women, and Russian women had remarkable property ownership rights compared to much of the western world.
How much did the educated class of small nobles help the Bolshevik revolution?
The Russians found an effective way to concentrate wealth anyway. When you think about it, a "side" effect of most libertarian policies is always concentration of wealth, no matter how randomly.
It's been a while since I read about feudal economics and political structures, but IIRC, nobody 'owned' the land.
In a pure feudal system. The king owned the land absolutely, usually by right of implied violence.
The king would gift or un-gift favourites and un-favourites with estates and titles to indicate preferment or disfavour. Although most nobles had one or more home estates, it was possible to have tens of different land grants. So many estates were run in absentia by estate managers who collected tithes and dealt with the finance and accounting, but rarely met the owner directly.
If nobles could threaten enough coordinated violence they could threaten or replace the king to improve their own position.
Once the merchant class started to prosper, the threat of violence became more legal and mercenary. Merchants and bankers rarely had their own war bands, but they regularly hired mercenaries to do their enforcement for them.
The aim was the same though - concessions, further land grabs, or occasionally the complete overthrow of the local top dog and replacement with someone more amenable. But merchants could also use money in less direct ways, which often outflanked the noble classes who weren't used to that kind of abstract financial engineering.
The Medici famously funded a criminal and made it possible for him to become pope. He repaid them with a monopoly on management of church tithes across all of Europe, which made them insanely wealthy almost overnight.
Either way, estates and land were very definitely owned explicitly. Although there was a tradition of common land, it was likely to be common land on an estate - i.e. common in a very local sense, in that everyone in a village was allowed right of pasture. There was no question of it being un-owned.
The UK still has the tradition of crown ownership with grants through the land registry. Even if land is owned freehold it still nominally belongs to the crown and is granted as a freehold. The giveaway is that if land stops being part of anyone's estate it reverts back to crown ownership rather than becoming government or common land.
Depending on which part of the world, Common land (a common), is a piece of land owned by one person, but over which other people can exercise certain traditional rights, such as allowing their livestock to graze upon it. The older texts use the word "common" to denote any such right, but more modern usage is to refer to particular rights of common, and to reserve the name "common" for the land over which the rights are exercised. By extension, the term "commons" has come to be applied to other resources which a community has rights or access to. Common land, an English development, was used extensively in England and Wales and in many former British colonies, for example in Ireland and the USA. Today commons still exist in England, Wales, Scotland and USA, although their extent is much reduced from the millions of acres that existed prior to the 17th century
Is a reasonable explanation Any idiot can face a crisis - it's day to day living that wears you out.