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Why was the original amendment introduced? What is gained by not allowing the (Executive) Head of State to address the Legislature?

I know the UK has elaborate rituals around the Queen's yearly address to underscore Parliament's independence from the Sovereign as a result of the English Revolution, but still...

A man of words and not of deeds is like a garden full of weeds; a man of deeds and not of words is like a garden full of turds — Anonymous

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 24th, 2009 at 05:00:00 AM EST
[ Parent ]
was right in the Constitution from the start. de Gaulle is said not to have been happy about it, but he never tried to change the constitution just for this.

afew is right that this is just about Sarkozy being able to do a "State of the Union" lookalike.

And the most ironic thing is that Monday's speech is widely seen in France (inclduing by all the rightwing people) as extremely mediocre and empty...

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes

by Jerome a Paris (etg@eurotrib.com) on Wed Jun 24th, 2009 at 05:31:28 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Jerome a Paris:
this is just about Sarkozy being able to do a "State of the Union" lookalike
That much is obvious.

But I am not asking only about the Constitution of the 5th republic - the rule was introduced in the 3rd Republic.

A man of words and not of deeds is like a garden full of weeds; a man of deeds and not of words is like a garden full of turds — Anonymous

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 24th, 2009 at 05:35:31 AM EST
[ Parent ]
were parliamentary regimes, with executive power in the prime minister and the President mostly a figurehead, so the rule was not that important.

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
by Jerome a Paris (etg@eurotrib.com) on Wed Jun 24th, 2009 at 08:58:33 AM EST
[ Parent ]

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