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You are arguing, unless I'm missing something, that I can't define "better" as the minimization of preferences and actual outcomes.  That's a valid argument, to a point.  You have to accept first a basic utilitarian framework for thinking about a word like "value" in the first place.  I don't think, however, that just accepting a utitilitarian framework leads to a trivial conclusion of market superiority over other means of allocating resources in a society.  But it does lead to focusing on just a few possibly problematic parameters -- such as sharing of honest information, and power.

It is quite true to say that I can't compare a rationing outcome and an auctioning outcome unless both outcomes are optimizing over the same criteria, which is given, a priori, by what one believes matters in life in the first place.  That is why we can never say that capitalism is better than feudalism, or that either of those social systems is better than the social systems of ancient Mayans, Aztecs, or preent tribal cultures in the Amazon, for example. Different things were or are deemed important to different people.

However, different forms of capitalist social organization, as well as communist or socialist forms -- examples of what anthopologists call "modernity" -- all occur within the basic utilitarian framework of the world. That is, all "modern" means of organizing society, like both Adam Smith and Karl Marx, all agree that "better" can be reasonably defined as achieving a closer match between what people want and what they ultimately get. Outside of modernity, we can't compare rationing to markets, but inside we can by arguing around efficient and equitable solutions -- how much there is, and who gets it.

It is not at all as trivial, mathematically, as you claim, even if you accept my premise of efficiency as a definition of better, principally because there is no way to say that efficiency has more claim than equity, which means that markets, themselves, cannot achieve socially optimal outcomes, because markets have nothing to do with equity, which is a value determined as subjectively as efficiency but over different objectives.  However, we can still conclude empirically that social systems that share honest information about real wants and real resources are likely to be superior within the parameters of modern society to social systems that restrict such sharing of information.  I advance that markets, combined with democratic governance structures, are more likely to provide a socially desirable allocation of resources given conditions of modernity, than other allocation systems and governance structures.  

Are there possible exceptions or significant problems and even contradictions with markets?  Of course there are. But given the currently observable counterfactuals -- fascism, authoritarian socialism (e.g. Venezuela vs. Brazil), communism, for example (let me know what I'm missing) -- can you honestly argue that other social systems have not proven inferior to markets?

by santiago on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 03:43:09 PM EST
[ Parent ]
For certain values of "market," and for certain values of "social systems."

Certain kinds of markets are good at doing certain things, just as certain kinds of government structures are good at doing certain things. Broadly speaking, markets appear to be good at providing material goods that individually take up a small fraction of the median income, have a respectably high turnover within the lifetime of a single individual and are reasonably easy to transport from one place to another.

OTOH, markets are exceedingly poor at making infrastructure that actually works (education, electricity, trains, payment clearing systems, pensions). And markets are completely unable to allocate non-local costs (systemic risk, cascading failures) and long-term costs (environmental destruction, resource depletion, failures due to insufficient maintenance). Or at least markets do not seem to be able to allocate those costs in a way that does not threaten to destroy the social structures that enable markets to exist.

Goods with moderately high turnover but which are largely immobile and take up a large fraction of the median income (real estate, mainly) have decidedly mixed empirical results for markets compared to central planning.

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 05:38:47 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Central planning or interventions in markets? There is a big difference between the two, and I can't think of many cases where central planning provided better housing than a market-based system of allocating resources to housing.  
by santiago on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 05:51:35 PM EST
[ Parent ]
A large part of the Danish rental pool is made up of government housing that is not subject to ordinary market operations. It serves fairly well to make sure that most people have a place to live that is of reasonably decent quality, is reasonably affordable and available somewhere close to transportation nodes.

That there is a private real estate market beside the government pool does not detract from the fact that the government housing is centrally planned according to criteria that have to do with social policy, city planning and similar criteria.

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 06:42:13 PM EST
[ Parent ]
If tenants pay rent, either through their own earned or gifted income or provision of a government voucher or subsidy of some kind, and they have a choice of some kind in selection of units, it is, by definition, a market-based housing policy, and not centrally planned or rationed.  Additionally, just the provision of free housing for the indigent in a larger system of private market housing also makes it part of a market system. I'd be surprised if there were many examples in OECD countries (or just about anywhere today for that matter) where centrally planned housing really exist for common people.

Examples of centrally-planned, non-market housing that immediately come to mind in otherwise market-based societies are state-run prisons, some mental health institutions, military barracks, and some refugee camps.  It's centrally planned if there are no choices and exchanges involved on the part of the receiving agents.

by santiago on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 07:29:49 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Housing associations and council housing | Wiltshire Council

The council owns over 5,000 properties that are rented to tenants. We provide services to tenants including housing repairs and providing a local neighbourhood manager.

In this section of the website you can apply to join the housing register or to move between council houses, pay your rent online, have your say in tenant participation, plus other services.

We are introducing a new choice-based lettings system and also administer the council tenants' right to buy scheme.

Also see the housing advice section for information on sheltered housing, emergency accommodation and other ways we support the housing needs of the district.

by ThatBritGuy (thatbritguy (at) googlemail.com) on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 08:00:13 PM EST
[ Parent ]
That is a highly unusual definition of "market."

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Fri Jun 12th, 2009 at 06:45:26 AM EST
[ Parent ]
This is the traditional definition of markets in the field of economics, called more generally by Amartya Sen, an exchange-entitlement economy. In a market system one's entitlements to resources is a function of what one is able to exchange for those resources -- labor, money, property, etc.  Most of the world has been organized in such a way for only the past 150 years or so, although the "Anglo" parts of the world go back a bit further.  Up until then, merchant activity, even in money/trade centers such as Genoa and Amsterdam, was a fringe activity that had little to do with how 95% of people got what they needed to live.  
by santiago on Fri Jun 12th, 2009 at 10:31:23 AM EST
[ Parent ]
According to that definition, the East German command economy was a "market system:" People bought their stuff with Ostmark, and how much stuff of any given kind they could obtain was governed by their possession (or lack) of Ostmark in the required quantities.

In fact, if you are going by that definition of "market," any reasonably industrialised country with even a half-evolved monetary system qualifies as a "market economy." I fail to see how that is helpful to a political or economic analysis that deals with a tolerably technologically sophisticated society.

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Sat Jun 13th, 2009 at 11:22:01 AM EST
[ Parent ]
You are arguing, unless I'm missing something, that I can't define "better" as the minimization of preferences and actual outcomes.
No, I'm not (JakeS is/may be. I can see that it might be a little confusing for you to respond to both of us simultaneously.) I believe your points are properly answerable by JakeS.

My own argument above is purely mathematical, and applies with *your* definition of what is desirable. While I personally don't care what function is being minimized, I am happy to work within your framework exclusively. Thus: let's completely ignore the social dimension.

All my argument uses is that there may be several distinct equilibria in a market, which are implied by the preferences (fixed once and for all). If you begin with some allocation vector, then market dynamics will converge (under appropriate conditions...) to some equilibrium vector. I also grant you that. The identity of this equilibrium vector will depend upon the starting point. Two distinct starting points may end up in two distinct equilibria. If you do not agree, say so now.

Maybe I should answer your previous question at this point.

Question: Under what conditions will rationing an equal portion of cake to each person better match their preferences than allowing people to exchange their initial endowments for portions of cake? In other words, when will total social efficiency under central rationing be less than under a system of trading things for portions of cake?
My answer: A necessary condition is that the equal rationing allocation vector is unobtainable by people exchanging their initial endowments according to their preferences. This is not a sufficient condition however. Sufficiency fails if there is a unique equilibrium in the market. Thus it would also be necessary to have multiple equilibria for rationing to have a chance of "wining".

I don't have a more complete solution of this problem at this point, but neither do you(?) of the converse:

Question: If I give you two arbitrary starting points (initial endowment distributions), can you predict which starting point leads to the smaller total social inefficiency? Alternatively, if I give you a single starting point, can you describe all starting points which either 1) have a greater social inefficiency than the particular equilibrium vector reached by the first point, or 2) reach some equilibrium whose total social inefficiency is greater than the total social inefficiency of the particular equilibrium reached by the first point.

I believe you cannot, in any practically useful sense. For example, if I propose an actual carbon trading market for the world, exactly which initial endowments of carbon credits should be allocated to everyone in the market to reach the equilibrium point whose total social inefficiency is smallest of all the equilibria? Can you calculate it?

--
$E(X_t|F_s) = X_s,\quad t > s$

by martingale on Thu Jun 11th, 2009 at 08:03:26 PM EST
[ Parent ]
If you begin with some allocation vector, then market dynamics will converge (under appropriate conditions...) to some equilibrium vector.

Not on any kind of time scale that's experimentally interesting.

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Fri Jun 12th, 2009 at 06:48:59 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Since I'm criticizing here the intrinsic suitability of the welfare theorems for the comparison of economic allocation methods, I am not concerned with this kind of detail. That said, it's easy to define a simple market where convergence occurs in a finite number of trades, even just one. The cake problem is one.

I agree with your attacks on the validity of the underlying mathematical assumptions, and while I've used such arguments myself before, in this thread I am not. Instead, I am pointing out that the welfare theorems aren't very deep when it comes to comparing economic allocation methods, and cannot support, even under ideal mathematical conditions, the claims about the superiority of markets vs non-markets.

The only thing a market can do is improve or "polish" an allocation in some sense. This is at best a local optimum in general, not a global one. To obtain a global optimum, it is therefore necessary to study non-market mechanisms.

--
$E(X_t|F_s) = X_s,\quad t > s$

by martingale on Fri Jun 12th, 2009 at 08:45:28 PM EST
[ Parent ]
True.

I guess I'm less charitable when it comes to permitting blithe assumptions that asymptotic solutions are interesting. Once burned twice careful, I guess. (a project of mine involved a relaxation time scale to the asymptotic solution that turned out to be around 19 orders of magnitude greater than the experimental time scale - a fact that failed to become apparent until we'd already spent two weeks and a bit on it...).

- Jake

If you only spend 20 minutes of the rest of your life on economics, go spend them here.

by JakeS (JangoSierra 'at' gmail 'dot' com) on Sat Jun 13th, 2009 at 11:27:50 AM EST
[ Parent ]

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