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Yeah, because "passing by unanimous consent" means (if I remember Roberts's Rules of Order properly) that the speaker asks "is there any objection to unanimous consent?" and, if there isn't, the motion is not put to a vote.

But you would expect there to have been a quorum and the minutes of the session to record who was present, wouldn't you?

By laying out pros and cons we risk inducing people to join the debate, and losing control of a process that only we fully understand. - Alan Greenspan

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Sat Oct 16th, 2010 at 04:44:13 PM EST
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