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Yeah, because "passing by unanimous consent" means (if I remember Roberts's Rules of Order properly) that the speaker asks "is there any objection to unanimous consent?" and, if there isn't, the motion is not put to a vote.

But you would expect there to have been a quorum and the minutes of the session to record who was present, wouldn't you?

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by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Sat Oct 16th, 2010 at 04:44:13 PM EST
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