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Yes, this is the case.  But it would be a constitutional violation of the first order for a municipality to claim that public demonstrations were prohibited for lack of funds to police them.  They would be simply ordered by courts to let them go on without police or to find the funds to make it work by reducing something else or increasing fees and taxes.  The explicit right in the US constitution provides a means of finding a consensus that public protest has priority over most other things that government might be interested in doing. Maybe that consensus just doesn't exist in the UK.
by santiago on Tue Nov 16th, 2010 at 12:16:21 PM EST
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