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The Empire was never just 'a trading bloc' - it was a resource extraction enterprise. Industrialisation wasn't necessary because the point was to bring raw materials home and export processed goods abroad, not vice versa.
The US has decided to take the opposite approach, which may turn out to be less than entirely wise because it introduces obvious dependencies and strategic weaknesses.
As for China being American - has anyone told the Chinese?
Using that argument the US is actually a colony of Israel, Saudi-Arabia and China.
And I see you've avoided my point about the strategic failures inherent in US de-industrialisation.
When most of your military hardware relies completely on components, raw materials and energy sources that have to be imported from potential enemies, you are not in a winning position.
RE: China and India. They weren't industrialized in 1910, and they still aren't, although in just the last decade they have gotten around to doing something about it. I think you'll find that there are few who would disagree with the categorization of China and India in 1910 as two of the poorest places in the world, especially since, despite all of their economic growth, over the last decade, that categorization still applies to them.
I didn't avoid your point about strategic failures inherent in de-industrialization. It just isn't a compelling claim on its own with regards to the discussion at hand. You'd almost have to post your own diary on it to warrant the variety of implicit claims made in it. For example, how, specifically, is a "resource extraction bloc" different from a "trading bloc?" And why should we presume that resource extraction for the purposes of exporting manufactures creates any less a dependency than importing low-cost manufactures for the purpose of consumption? And why is dependency even a problem for an empire at all -- isn't creating interdependency relationships the whole purpose of an empire?
And why should we presume that resource extraction for the purposes of exporting manufactures creates any less a dependency than importing low-cost manufactures for the purpose of consumption?
The stark but useful image is this: Who has power--the junkie or the drug dealer?
Yeah, I know many Americans would say the junkie, but that is just proof of cluelessness and the whole reason we are now swirling down the shitter.
isn't creating interdependency relationships the whole purpose of an empire?
No. The purpose is extracting wealth from conquered regions and colonies. All national strategists understand this perfectly well. Usually the wealth extracted is raw materials, but it doesn't have to be. The main thing is the ability to compel unfavorable terms of trade.
So: Is China attached to the US rather than the other way around? Certainly they are getting unfavorable terms of trade, that is, low prices for the stuff they produce. But by getting the low prices on industrial goods, rather than raw materials, they have become industrialized--which means materially and technically capable.
Thus the US is getting immediate benefits (cheap goodies) at Chinese expense, while China is getting the long term benefit of economic strength and capability. Both sides are taking on costs: for China massive pollution and for the US social breakdown and loss of capability.
As Chris Cook points out, by September 2007 the US had lost the strategic initiative--the ability to force events rather than be forced by them. By September 2008 both China and Russia and demonstrated, independently and separately, and in the latter case very publicly, that they could veto US actions in western Asia.
Thus a relative decline in American power is a two-year-old fact. An absolute decline is also postulated, on economic and geological grounds. The Fates are kind.
doubtless formalised in exquisite documentation in triplicate, and signed off as 'necessary measures were taken'. "It's very hard to see what is kept invisible" Roseanne Barr
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