Probably incredibly unreadable modelling thread

by Colman
Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 12:01:53 PM EST

Metatone commented earlier
It strikes me that I've read a lot about the mythic status of "Comparative Advantage" in connection with proof using simple game theory. Indeed, if you inspect the average college economics course you are almost guaranteed to find a very simple simulation set up to demonstrate how Comparative Advantage is real, despite its "counterintuitive nature."

(For myself I sometimes think that great play is made about the "counterintuitive nature" of Comparative Advantage in order to bolster it's mystique, but that is a discussion for another day.)

I seem to recall that you are in the simulation field to some degree at work. Would it possible to set up one of these "simple" demonstrations of Comparative Advantage, but add in movement of capital to that of goods?

Migeru took him up on that ... this thread might be a minority interest.


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One of the characteristics about theoretical arguments about economic theories is how far removed they are from the facts on the ground. "Ricardo was right", "No he no longer applies", etc.

Well another approach is to look at how things are doing in the real world and ignore the theories. Let's take trade and economic development. Several of the most successful countries in terms of development over the past 50 years have not followed the standard IMF patterns. Singapore is a good example, even China and India have been very protective of their internal markets and the degree of foreign investment they allowed.

On the other side, the biggest clients of the IMF and world bank have fared the poorest. This is primarily Latin America and Africa. Their standards of living have changed little, and much of the invested money has gone to waste. Many have had currency crises as well after following IMF advice. This include several countries in Southeast Asia as well.

There is a new book out about the (lack) of success in using the standard model to promote economic growth by William Easterly. I haven't read it yet, but I'm sure it pretty much echos his previous one. The inescapable conclusion is that the "free trade" model helps the big countries more than the small ones. The small ones know this which is why the trade talks are progressing so slowly.

Theories are fun to debate in the classroom (or in the blogosphere), but when they get in the way of progress it is time to move on to realistic programs.

Policies not Politics
---- Daily Landscape

by rdf (robert.feinman@gmail.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 11:00:46 AM EST
I thought the point was that after 230 years (since Adam Smith), we would actually have identified some economic principles that could scientifically inform the "move to realistic programs". Instead, economic debates are as ideological as they has ever been. The frequent "deconstructions" of the Financial Times, The Economist, or the OECD, where it is argued that the data are sound but that the accompanying text ignores the data and just goes to the predetermined conclusion, are just depressing.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 11:20:19 AM EST
[ Parent ]
That's because economics is ideological.

I'm not sure if the proponents of globalisation genuinely believe that a rising tide raises all boats. Perhaps some do. But the reality seems to be that economics is primarily a tool of social control, and not of asset management and collective wealth development.

So economics isn't about money or goods or trade. It's about power relationships between the weak and the strong. Until this fact becomes a central part of the discourse around economic theories, its relationship to reality is a side-issue.

There's no reason why a socially literate form of economics couldn't be developed. But what we have today has its roots in the evangelical and imperalist world view of the 19th century. And there's little room there for more humane values.

Creating a reality-based non-monopolistic economic structure is probably the most important thing that needs to be done. That's going to mean dismantling most of what's around now, which isn't going to be painless or easy. But it is essential, because without that connection to reality, basics like eco-debt and long term asset husbandry don't figure in today's calculations.

What we have today isn't interested in those externalities because they're not part of the social calculus that keeps the pyramid arranged the way it is now. It's almost like being back in the 17th century again, before any of that nonsense about democracy and revolution happened. Royalty isn't nationalistic or monolithic now, it's international, corporate, and partly anonymous. But the pattern of exploitation of both populations and natural assets is similar. If anything it's worse because mechanisation makes natural asset stripping far more efficient than it used to be.

by ThatBritGuy (thatbritguy (at) googlemail.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 04:51:00 PM EST
[ Parent ]
That's because economics is ideological.

Yes and No.  No and Yes.

Certain insights of economics are ripped out of context, qualifying phrases stricken, and deployed by media whores (MW) in the service of the paymasters.

Free Trade in the long run will benefit more people than tariff walls.  (See Great Depression, History of; Smoot & Hartley Act, Consequences of.)  Free Trade in the short run will cause economic dislocation as firms and workers are out competed.  Both of these are true and neither affects & effects can be ignored.

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Thu Jun 15th, 2006 at 11:24:45 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I think you're misunderestimating the degree of indoctrination.

Economics reduces to simple concepts like Free Trade, Inflation and Unemployment which are colouring book caricatures of the economic forces that really shape people's lives.

If I grow bananas in South America, the concept of free trade vs protectionism is irrelevant when I can't get a fair price for my product because the supposedly level playing field is skewed - sometimes by force - to give the big corporates all of the leverage.

Anomalies like this mean that economics is wrong in so many ways that if you stripped it down to essentials and left the elements that have some connection with reality - meaning everyday reality, not the reality of the super-rich - there would be very little left.

Worst of all is the way that economics promotes an implicit moral code of mindless speculation and accumulation. Shared prosperity isn't a bad thing, but whatever the PR says, the real goal of economics today seems to be personal wealth accumulated with total disdain for the greater good, and the limited selection of social metrics that are used in economics - inflation, unemployment and GDP - are so crude that they exclude all social responsibility.

It's surely possible to create economic metrics that live in the real world, and not in some superficial 19th century abstraction of it. But for now these fake abstractions are treated as if they're the most important thing on the planet - which is literally an insane state of affairs.

by ThatBritGuy (thatbritguy (at) googlemail.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 07:23:39 AM EST
[ Parent ]
You're confusing mathematical/theoretical economics with economic polemics  - the inappropriate application of economic theory to real-life examples in order to get the answer you wanted.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 07:43:00 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Is there more to economics than polemics? </polemic>

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 07:44:25 AM EST
[ Parent ]
That was my point, in fact. If I am getting the two confused - whcih I don't think I am, so much as questioning the motivations that produced today's models - I don't seem to be the only one.

When someone talks about 'economic realities' supporting a reform agenda, are they doing economics, or polemic?

Do the Economist and the FT do economics, or polemic?

The underlying problem is that the concepts and measures used in economics lend themselves everso elegantly to one kind of political discourse, while making alternative views and metrics difficult to conceptualise, quantify and discuss.

by ThatBritGuy (thatbritguy (at) googlemail.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 09:28:54 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Free Trade in the long run will benefit more people than tariff walls.

Not necessarily. That's the whole point of this debate. And since there's no such thing as free trade we don't actually know anything much about what it will do, only what it might.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 07:40:50 AM EST
[ Parent ]
The key qualifying phrase was "in the long run."  By which I meant a hundred years or so.

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.
by ATinNM on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 09:52:32 AM EST
[ Parent ]
"In the long run" is a mathematical fantasy. It's not a qualifying phrase, it's an admission the model doesn't apply usefully to the real world, unless you can bound the convergence. If you could show monotonicity that'd be a start, except it would rely on unrealistic conclusions.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 09:58:45 AM EST
[ Parent ]
One of the joys of this thread is that I feel free to make statements like that without explaining them for lay people. Anyone who's in here knows the risks.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 10:01:05 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Hahaha!

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 10:07:45 AM EST
[ Parent ]
By "monotonicity" I assume you are refering to the act of playing a one string banjo?

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.
by ATinNM on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 11:46:00 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Any decent model of economic praxis must included Feedback loops.  Feedback loops - of all kinds - affect agents and the Fitness Landscape over time.  While the specific effects are unpredictable the model qua model must include them to have a hope of accuracy.  

Temporal Logic, a branch of Modal Logic, exists to abstract the impossible, the possible, the necessary.  Such that:

P{x,y}

where y achieves, gains, or has the P referent through Time via x and P is a quality or a quantity - All XOR Some XOR None. If we get lucky, the quantity maybe first order - 'a' number assigned to 'a' variable, tho' it's much more likely to be a second or greater order quantity, such as a Complex Number, or a series of mathematical statements grouped into inter-related families of mathematical statements.    

One result of this, using the Lowenheim-Skolem Theorem, is the (potential and unpredictable) bifurcation of model functions from D -> T to D -> T' where T' is who-the-hell-knows-what.  ;-)  One known occurance of this is the transformation, in Catastrophe Theory, of control to state or state to control variable(s).  Time, then, can become a control variable in certain of these transformations.

Modeling (certain) Feedback Loops, therefore, we have to acknowledge the potential for Time to 'jump' between playing a role as a control or as a state variable leading to qualitative change of of the Fitness Landscape.

Note:  I am not saying Time isn't constant.  That would be ... weird.  

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 11:41:06 AM EST
[ Parent ]
You still owe us a diary explaining exactly what you're going on about.

I hate temporal logic. Nasty icky stuff.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 12:03:42 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Chortle

It's just another dimension.  What are we up to now?  18 +/-?

I know I owe the diary and I plan on finishing it Real Soon Now.  Any day.  

yup, yup, yup.

Of course if I tell you, you'll tell Migeru, he'll tell Sven, and pretty soon today will be tomorrow and yesterday will have had been next month.  8^p

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Fri Jun 16th, 2006 at 08:52:51 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I don't mind the extra dimension: I tend to regard anything ordered set with a bottom element as time-like (technically any downclosed topology).
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Sat Jun 17th, 2006 at 10:59:51 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Just a bottom element, or do you require an infimum function?

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Sat Jun 17th, 2006 at 11:28:45 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Congratulations: your comment here is now the #10 Google hit for "infimum function".

Words and ideas I offer here may be used freely and without attribution.
by technopolitical on Tue Jun 27th, 2006 at 12:53:11 AM EST
[ Parent ]
You've got to be kidding me.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 27th, 2006 at 03:02:31 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I try to stay away from analytical Topology by deploying Fuzzy Logic in a non-Boolean Decision Space:  I Don't Care.

(laughing)


Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Sat Jun 17th, 2006 at 11:56:26 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Anyone got a statement of comparative advantage they'd like to use? What are the assumptions made?
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 12:05:15 PM EST

The Wikipedia definition seems like a good place to start.

As an economic naif this looks to me like one of the many, many ideas in economics that start with 'If all other things are equal...' - assuring a certain disconnection from reality right from the beginning.

So rather than textbook simulations, wouldn't it be more useful to try find examples from the real world?

Any theory that's so fragile it can't survive real world trading conditions doesn't deserve to be taken seriously.  Alternatively if it really does work, being able to point to some reality-based evidence for it would help define the boundary conditions of any simulation.

by ThatBritGuy (thatbritguy (at) googlemail.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 12:25:28 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Just an engineer here. But FWIW, if the model does not include time as a variable (and from what I've seen it doesn't) it's pretty worthless.  
by tjbuff (timhess@adelphia.net) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:35:23 AM EST
[ Parent ]
From the wikipedia article:
Assumptions in Example 3
  • ...
  • Full employment - if one or other of the economies has less than full employment of factors of production, then this excess capacity must usually be used up before the comparative advantage reasoning can be applied.
  • ...
  • Perfect mobility of factors of production within countries - this is necessary to allow production to be switched without cost. In real economies this cost will be incurred: capital will be tied up in plant (sewing machines are not sowing machines) and labour will need to be retrained and relocated. This is why it is sometimes argued that 'nascent industries' should be protected from fully liberalised international trade during the period in which a high cost of entry into the market (capital equipment, training) is being paid for.
  • Immobility of factors of production between countries - why are there different rates of productivity? Capital includes production technology and know-how. If it can be moved between countries then the production capabilities of the countries will change. Similarly the movement of labour will change that factor cost and productivity. Perfect transnational mobility of factors of production would invalidate comparative advantage. Imperfect transnational mobility reduces the mutual benefit of trade.
  • Perfect competition - this is a standard assumption that allows perfectly efficient allocation of productive resources in an idealized free market.
Note, specifically: Perfect transnational mobility of factors of production would invalidate comparative advantage. Ergo, globalization invalidates comparative advantage.


When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 12:44:15 PM EST
[ Parent ]
So none of the assumptions hold? Excellent. I'll be relying on that then.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 12:58:20 PM EST
[ Parent ]
With hindsight, I think my diary on comparative advantage addressed the effects of "[im]perfect mobility of factors of production within countries".

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 01:03:52 PM EST
[ Parent ]
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 01:11:02 PM EST
[ Parent ]
The fun part about the assumptions as they are presented there is that capital plays no part in the set up whatsoever.

This is terribly important as I think it clarifies my main problem with the issue (and which prompted my comment.)

The success of teaching Comparative Advantage rests on a beautifully simple model, a little bit of game theory, nothing more. From that (if you read the mises link I put in my other comment) they are happy to build a whole assertion of "good things."

The problem with free mobility of capital is that it doesn't disrupt the generic assumption that free trade makes for a larger "total sum of wealth" but that it has the potential to massively destabilize the utilisation of that wealth, leaving whole countries effectively unemployed.

This doesn't bother the rich, but it should bother the rest of us.

Seeing the power of a simple model, badly applied in all these economics classes and textbooks, I wondered, what if we can build a simple little model that demonstrates (or not) my fears about what the movement of capital means for the stability of the system. It could be a powerful tool for helping people think carefully about trade.

by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 01:21:29 PM EST
[ Parent ]
An honest author:
In this way we might raise the well being of all individuals despite differences in relative productivities. In this description, we do not predict that a result will carry over to the complex real world. Instead we carry the logic of comparative advantage to the real world and ask how things would have to look to achieve a certain result (maximum output and benefits). In the end we should not say that the model of comparative advantage tells us anything about what will happen when two countries begin to trade, instead we should say that the theory tells us some things that can happen.

Comparative advantage is important as a rebuttal to naive zero-sum thinking, not as a predictor of performance in a free-trade scenario which does not conform to the assumptions.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 01:30:50 PM EST
[ Parent ]
There are still lots of people who think that free-trade is necessarily bad for you. This isn't true, as the theory clearly indicates. It's just not necessarily good either, which is how the theory is generally interpreted.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 01:37:33 PM EST
[ Parent ]
The assumption is very simple: Different countries are better suited to produce different goods.

China is better suited to make low-cost clothing than America.  America is better suited to grow corn than Saudi Arabia.  Since Saudi Arabia is better suited to the production of oil than America, it only makes sense, in a two-country universe, for America to produce corn while Saudi Arabia pumps oil.

If Saudi Arabia is initially producing corn and oil, and America is doing the same, then free trade should lead to America producing corn, and Saudi Arabia producing oil.  Because this is more efficient, global wealth rises.  Saudi Arabians and Americans can buy what they need with less income.

That's it.  It doesn't require all of the assumptions that are posted elsewhere in the thread.  It's common sense.  If China has an enormous pool of unskilled labor, China will naturally have an advantage over France in producing goods that only require unskilled labor.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?

by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 05:57:41 PM EST
[ Parent ]
The only thing you need for comparative advantage to work - the ONLY thing - is that countries have different levels of productivity at producing different things. That's it.

All the talk about labor and capital mobility is really beside the point. Sure, if the global economy were totally frictionless, AND every country had the same technological and organizational capabilities AND the same equally efficient institutions, then everybody would be equally efficient at producing everything and there would be no comparative advantage.

So comparative advantage IS a benefit from open trade that is still relevant to today's world and will continue to be relevant as long as countries are relatively better at producing some things than others. This does not mean that there are not offsetting costs (like downward pressure on the wages of unskilled workers in rich countries, for example) from our current global trade regime (there are) or that many (most?) economists until very recently have tended to ignore or minimize those costs (they have).

The trick is to develop a global trade regime that gives us the benefits of comparative advantage with far less of the costs that the current system generates.

by TGeraghty on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 11:37:11 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I know these sorts of comments get many people angry, but I think that the energy that people here put into trying to refute the theory of comparative advantage is misguided and could be put to better use -- again, by making a broader accounting of the total costs and benefits, and their distribution, of our current trade system, and by suggesting ways to reform that system to maximize the net benefits while ensuring a fairer distribution.
by TGeraghty on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 11:44:02 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Refute might not be the right word. Understand what is going on and how reliable it is: present a subject as mathematical and we're going to do that.

However, both Drew and you seem to have decided it's better to abandon the mathematics and rely on common sense.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:33:45 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Thank you.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?
by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 12:19:24 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Again, there are no mathematics underpinning it then? Free trade always make everything better?
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:28:33 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Sure, it's easy to theoretically show in a simple two-country model that moving from a world of no trade to one where countries trade, you can potentially make everyone better off. And you can extend that to many countries, tariff cuts, etc, and all you really need is the different productivities for producing different goods and services. There is math underpinning that, but it's all abstract and necessarily leaves out important features of the real world.

Like the "infant industry" story - what if that tariff allows a temporarily inefficient industry to achieve scale economies and efficiency gains that allows it to compete on global markets? If you remove the tariff too soon, you may lose the industry and good-paying jobs. But as long as you have the tariff, consumers pay more for the good in question. The devil is in the details here.

Or like the other stuff people have mentioned here - the global labor arbitrage for example. Again, it's a question of balancing potential gains from specialization against other costs, which I admit economists are not always clear about.

Also, one of the problems with economic policy analysis is that distributional considerations are usually ignored. As long as a given policy change (net) results in enough increased output to potentially compensate those who lose from the policy change, economists will usually say that the policy change should happen, even if all the benefits went to Bill Gates and all the costs were imposed on everyone else.

So, no, "free trade" (and of course there is the problem that "free trade" has become such a politically loaded term that it doesn't mean the same thing to different people) in the sense of moving in the general direction of more openness by reducing tariffs and other trade barriers (my definition of "free trade") doesn't always make things better for everyone, but that's different than saying comparative advantage doesn't permit overall increases in output and income (which could and should then be used to compensate those who bear the costs through jobs programs, investments in education and training, and a generous welfare state).

by TGeraghty on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:15:31 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Also, one of the problems with economic policy analysis is that distributional considerations are usually ignored. As long as a given policy change (net) results in enough increased output to potentially compensate those who lose from the policy change, economists will usually say that the policy change should happen, even if all the benefits went to Bill Gates and all the costs were imposed on everyone else.
And Kaldor-Hicks optimality has been invented for the express purpose of assuaging their conscience about ignoring (re)distribution issues.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 07:13:47 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Oh, come on, Miguel.  Hicks invented the IS/LM model, and Kaldor was an advisor to Labour governments.  Both taught at Cambridge, which had an economics department that wasn't exactly known for militant libertarian leanings.  Do you really believe they were enemies of redistribution?

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?
by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 12:54:02 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I don't know what they believed. I do know that arguing that "in principle" compensation is as good as "actual" compensation completely obviates the need for a redistribution policy.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 01:00:45 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I wonder (because I haven't checked) if you're fallen into the trap set by economic ideologues who misapply the mathematical models to justify their position, in the way that the free-marketeers seem to rely on arguments about market efficiency that really aren't supportable to support their plunder and concentrate policies.

Mathematical models do not have moral content: it's the polemic constructed around the models that does.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 01:11:32 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Possibly. I also found this (my emphasis):
Within the same context, a Kaldor-Hicks improvement is defined as a change that is either a Pareto improvement or such that:
  • the "winners" from the change would be able to compensate the "losers" and still be better off (Kaldor criterion); and
  • the "losers" could not afford to bribe the "winners" to prevent the change (Hicks criterion).
Crucially, the compensation or bribe elements of the test for a Kaldor-Hicks improvement is a hypothetical one: the change is considered an improvement if the assessed winners' gain is greater than the assessed losers' loss, regardless of whether the change when implemented would actually involve the payment of any compensation.
It is definitely an improvement on Pareto to consider the possibility of side payments, as long as they actually take place, wwhich is "crucially" not the case in Kaldor-Hicks optimality.

Often Pareto optimality is an impairment to taking any action (see the effects of unanimous decision making in teh EU council, for instance), but then sometimes people just say "but see, it's not Pareto optimal but it is Kaldor-Hicks optimal, so it's ok, we can ignore the losers".

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 01:17:50 PM EST
[ Parent ]
And, further to the above comment, as you know the IS/LM model was the original Keynesian model that served as the intellectual foundation for programs designed to put money in the hands of those hurt by economic downturns -- otherwise known as a form of redistribution.  That's hardly a point endorsing your above attack.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?
by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 12:59:51 PM EST
[ Parent ]
That's not the way I've seen it used, but maybe there was a misrepresentation or misunderstanding involved.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 01:02:34 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Free trade isn't necessarily the best way to handle trade.  It's simply a matter of free trade being better than the other ideas we have so far.  Krugman once pointed out, in one of his books, that even if we were capable of developing a system that would work better, it would be a pointless exercise, because it would be too difficult to build in the real world.  A great deal changes, obviously, when politicians get involved.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?
by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:34:10 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Also, labour outsourcing is not free trade. Direct foreign investment is not free trade. And free trade doesn't mean unregulated trade.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:36:01 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I note neither of you saw fit to reply to this comment upthread.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:31:50 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I didn't see that comment, honestly.  My initial look at the thread was only a quick one.  Part of my response will be in a reply to Migeru below, because I think he brought up an important point that requires a much longer discussion.  Perhaps a diary.  Inevitably the real world will be too complex for the basic point I made.

I think the author you quote made a decent overall point.  His last sentence is wrong, in my opinion.  When China opened its doors to trade, for example, the result was reasonably predictable.  Jobs that didn't require a highly-skilled worker went to a country with a large pool of unskilled labor -- that large pool translating to lower costs.  Ricardo was simply taking Smith's division of labor a step forward to build a trade theory at a time when economists were at war against mercantilism.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?

by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:25:53 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I am generally in agreement with what he said.

The point about "full employment of resources" is also key. In a world of global industrial overcapacity, industry location can have huge impacts on employment and wage structures, as people living in the US "rustbelt" well know.

by TGeraghty on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:18:04 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Are you really that thick, Drew?
by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 06:01:06 PM EST
[ Parent ]
that was a serious comment, I think it was uncalled for.

You can't be me, I'm taken
by Sven Triloqvist on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 06:24:34 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Ceteris paribus, you are probably right.
by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 06:36:00 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I'll break my vow and reply. Drew is quoting the standard Ricardo version of trade. The problem with his theory is that it was formulated at a period when money was based upon gold. The flow of capital was thus restricted by the convertibility of currency. He also assumed that labor was relatively immobile.

These two conditions no longer hold.

Another factor (see Herman Daly) is that Ricardo was an economist in an "empty" world, we are now in a "full" one. In an empty world the costs of raw materials and pollution are disregarded. If an area is despoiled one can move. In a full world these costs are passed on to society as a whole. So while firms still operate on comparative advantage, this is no longer a valid model. The costs they are ignoring get borne by others.

A good example is today's article on Chinese Coal:
http://www.eurotrib.com/?op=displaystory;sid=2006/6/12/8448/61749

One of the points that Jerome skipped was that sulfur and soot from Chinese coal burning are showing up in California. In a full world, everything connects.

Oh, to be young again and know all the answers...

Policies not Politics
---- Daily Landscape

by rdf (robert.feinman@gmail.com) on Mon Jun 12th, 2006 at 07:17:30 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I'll break my vow and reply.

I must make quite an impression if you feel the need to vow not to reply to me (and then break it).  Frankly, I'm not sure as too whether I should laugh or send a "Thank You" card.

The problem with his theory is that it was formulated at a period when money was based upon gold.

No.  It was formulated during a period in which Saudi Arabia was an oil-rich desert while America was not.  That's a period that continues today.  My basic point -- the one that apparently makes me "thick" (thank you, Metatone) -- was that comparative advantage is a theory dealing primarily with natural differences between nations/places.

You seem to be under the impression that I'm disputing the notion of costs being borne by others in the case of your example, pollution.  Why you believe this, I don't know.

Oh, to be young again and know all the answers...

Yes.  Now, if I could only demonstrate what a classy fellow I am by tallking down to younger members of the site, life would truly be complete.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?

by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 12:16:57 AM EST
[ Parent ]

 Nicely parried.

  I see I have two "dogs" in this fight; so I have to plug for both and hope neither is injured in the process.

 

"In the interest of democracy, repressive actions were taken; In order to preserve democracy, repressive actions were taken"

by proximity1 (proximity1-at-free-dot-fr---end-o'adresss) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:46:38 AM EST
[ Parent ]
So it's not a mathematical model as the other economists say, it's just common sense? No rigorous underpinnings? No demonstration of increases in welfare?
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 02:26:16 AM EST
[ Parent ]
To be, economics should always be qualitative, not quantitative (i.e. increasing the supply of money usually leads to inflation vs M3 increasing by 10% causes inflation to increase by 1%: one id mostly true, the other is silly even if it can be true occasonally).

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
by Jerome a Paris (jeromeguillet@yahoo.fr) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 03:05:39 PM EST
[ Parent ]
That's fine so long as that's how it is presented. "Comparative advantage and thus free trade makes everyone better off" is presented as a law of nature, not as a rule of thumb.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 05:27:29 PM EST
[ Parent ]
That's actually a pretty good description of what economics should be about: rules of thumb rather than laws of nature

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
by Jerome a Paris (jeromeguillet@yahoo.fr) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 06:16:36 AM EST
[ Parent ]
The underlying assumption here is that "mathematical" implies "quantitative" and excludes "qualitative". The same mistake was made by 19th century mathematicians who felt that only arithmetic was rigorous enough for calculus (the arithmetization of analysis) and geometry (algebraic geometry). This mistake hasn't been corrected yet, even though it's been over 100 years since Poincare invented topology, which is all qualitative. The quantitative determinism of 19th century mechanics also has given way to qualitative dynamical systems theory [again pioneered by Poincare and forgotten for 70 years... a real tragedy].

Topology blows my mind away. Algebraic geometry (especially the kind where you just write down equations and churn) bores me to tears. Most of what passes for advanced mathematical economics is hardly advanced or beautiful math, and certainly not qualitative.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 11:35:24 AM EST
[ Parent ]
All of those things can be done.  I just don't have the energy to do them at the moment.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?
by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 08:51:23 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Without relying on the assumptions above?
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 05:26:05 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Drew, if American capitalists can move all jobs except selling food, clothes, and gadgets, cleaning toilets, and building houses, to China and India [and there are enough educated chinese and indians to take over all US white collar jobs] then what jobs are left for americans, and what income will Americans use to buy the clothes and gadgets made in China?

Comparative advantage (and division of labour) reduce to the simple mathematical fact that if you look for the optimum among a larger set of possibilities, you get a better optimum. You can also get the convexity of the production possibility frontier out of the general properties of functions defined by optimizing a parametric family.

There is one basic flaw in making the jump from division of labour to comparative advantage. It is reasonable to consider a person as a single, indivisible economic agent. It is not so reasonable to consider countries as single economic agents. Maybe it was so in Ricardo's era, but it is not today.

Cui bono? It appears to me that the downplaying of capital as a factor of production in discussions of comparative advantage, ignoring transnational agents, ingoring the different agents within national economies, and using "comparative advantage" as the answer to "why free trade?" just points to the fact that it is the transnational capitalist class that benefits to the detriment of everyone else.

There is a point in quantitative social science where mathematical modellling stops and political choices begin. Too many people look to mathematical economic as the magical too that will give the one true policy solution to any given problem. They don't understand policy, modelling, or mathematics.

I suppose that's what Metatone meant with "are you really that thick?".

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 06:54:05 AM EST
[ Parent ]

if American capitalists can move all jobs except selling food, clothes, and gadgets, cleaning toilets, and building houses, to China and India

Producing non tradeable goods and services make a very large majority of jobs, even today.

When a T-Shirt is sold $10 in the US, a small fraction of a dollar goes to China, the rest is spent on services provided inside the US- the retail job, the logistics infrastructure, the construction of the store, the roads, the port, the tax administration, the IT installation the software, etc...

In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes

by Jerome a Paris (jeromeguillet@yahoo.fr) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 03:10:58 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Producing non tradeable goods and services make a very large majority of jobs, even today.
Even today, or especially today? Is that what the service economy is about, to avoid trade once it has been made free?

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 07:11:34 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Some of the nontradeable services you mention are outsourceable.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Jun 14th, 2006 at 07:12:14 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Ah, but in the long run ...
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 06:57:30 AM EST
[ Parent ]
In the long run the last capitalist is strangled with the guts of the last economist. </snark>

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 06:59:36 AM EST
[ Parent ]
you get a better optimum

You may get  a better optimum, surely?

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:01:01 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Well, you dont get a worse optimum.

The collection of problems for which the optimum combined solution is the juxtaposition of the optima for the parts is nowhere dense, of measure zero, a variety of lower dimension, or any of a number of colourful phrases depending on which favourite branch of math you use to pose the question.

And I'm a physicist at heart. To me > and ≥ are the same, within experimental accuracy.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:05:19 AM EST
[ Parent ]
And I'm a physicist at heart. To me > and ? are the same, within experimental accuracy.

While mathematicians worry about the difference. Don't get a worse optimum I can live with! You were worrying me with the other.

by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:08:37 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I almost wrote "don't get a worse optimum" and then I thought "bah, only mathematicians would care about that, and the reast will have to do a double take and may even ask about the double negative".

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:10:15 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Bloody mathematicians.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:12:10 AM EST
[ Parent ]
My hands are of your colour, but I shame to wear a heart so white.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:12:59 AM EST
[ Parent ]
If you're a constructivist or intuitionist mathematician, ≥ may not exist.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:11:34 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I think it's time for our resident applied epistemologist to chime in.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:12:28 AM EST
[ Parent ]
(I'm still working on my first cup of coffee so I request permission to Revise and Extend my remarks.)

We're talking Reals, right?

≥ means there exists a number such that the statement to the left stops/halts at a singular and particular quantity.  As in:

x + y ≥ 5 (E1)

Compare with:

x + y > 5    (E2)

in E1 5 is a member of the solution set while in E2 5 is a set descriptor, one may say, a property of the set, and is not a member of the set -- to avoid Russell's Paradox.

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 09:53:27 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I call on your epistemological powers of discernment and you swallow "Reals" whole?

Enough of that American coloured water you call coffee: have an espresso, no, due espressi.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 10:01:53 AM EST
[ Parent ]
We could start with the Counting Numbers and work out from there but it's too damn early in (my) morning for that.  

I am drinking fresh ground Guatemala Antigua (Fair Trade) beans, French roasted, made in a French Press pot with water that has come to a full boil and then rested for 10 seconds before being added to the pot.  The brew then steeps to bring out the oils and develope the caramel flavours.  

Unfortunately, our Expresso Machine died.  :-(  So the occasional early AM double-shot is no longer available.  

Have epistemological model of Complex Information environments. Will Travel.

by ATinNM on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 10:23:30 AM EST
[ Parent ]
On the reals (and possibly other infinite structures) anyway. I don't think they'd deny it on finite structures for instance.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:13:35 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Q: How much can you get away with in finitistic math?

A: A heck of a lot, but nonconstructively.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 07:16:52 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Drew, if American capitalists can move all jobs except selling food, clothes, and gadgets, cleaning toilets, and building houses, to China and India [and there are enough educated chinese and indians to take over all US white collar jobs] then what jobs are left for americans, and what income will Americans use to buy the clothes and gadgets made in China?

There would, in that case, be very little income left for Americans to buy anything.  There would also be little by way of a market for China and India to sell their goods in America.  In the end, you can only sell what your customers can buy.  However, today, China needs to sell a couple million t-shirts in order to buy an American airplane.

And this is not an accurate picture.  If it were the case that businesses simply shipped the great jobs to China and India, American output would plummet.  As you know, despite all of the issues we can rightly dig into with regard to what is wrong with the current American expansion, output is still rising at similar rates to what we saw in the 1990s.

You're tripping, I think, over the myth of service-sector jobs being inherently lower in pay.  Everyone thinks of the McDonald's employee, who earns the minimum wage and is usually a teenager, and fails to remember the programmer at the telephone answering service company (such as a friend of mine), who earns a much higher income and is, at least, in his/her twenties.  The service-sector jobs created in the 1990s were largely of the latter sort.  (I have a statistic on this in one of my books.  I'll try to dig it up later, but I seem to remember the statistics showing that roughly 2/3s of Dot-Com-Boom Era jobs were higher-income, as defined -- again, if I remember correctly -- as carrying salaries of $50,000 or more.)

More options will, obviously, leave an investor or businessman no worse off.  But comparative advantage is really getting at the fact that different parts of the world will be have different characteristics, and thus lend themselves to different portions of the economy, which is why I brought up the comparison between America and Saudi Arabia on corn and oil, since it connects with differences in the environment.

It is not so reasonable to consider countries as single economic agents.

I partly agree.  But keep in mind that countries also, to some extent, turn themselves into economic agents through their legal arrangements.

It appears to me that the downplaying of capital as a factor of production in discussions of comparative advantage, ignoring transnational agents, ingoring the different agents within national economies, and using "comparative advantage" as the answer to "why free trade?" just points to the fact that it is the transnational capitalist class that benefits to the detriment of everyone else.

I wasn't aware that I ignored these.  Perhaps you might get into some specifics.

Is trade to the detriment of people in China?  Or the emerging market in Vietnam?  Again, everyone looks to the unemployed manufacturing worker whose job has been shipped to Asia while completely ignoring the fact that the worker in Asia now has a job.  Are American workers entitled to those jobs?  They're going to lose them, anyway, if another company moves into that market and undercuts the manufacturing worker's employer.  Is the business owner now going to make more money?  That depends on a number of factors, but the odds seem to strongly suggest that he will, in the short run.  But what happens when his competitors move in, or when new competitors spring up in China?  It's not a one-move game in which the outcome lasts forever.

Look, we're talking about the aggregate.  In the aggregate, comparative advantage suggests that free trade will leave us in better shape, economically.  Does it mean that every individual will be better off?  Of course not.  If anyone is able to find a policy that leaves every person wealthier, let me know.  I'll notify the Bank of Sweden.

Again, I don't think I was denying the presence of political choices, nor did I come anywhere near making a claim that mathematical economics would provide a magic tool.  If what I've said makes me thick, then I suppose I'll live with being thick.

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?

by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 10:47:36 AM EST
[ Parent ]
There would, in that case, be very little income left for Americans to buy anything.  There would also be little by way of a market for China and India to sell their goods in America.  In the end, you can only sell what your customers can buy.  However, today, China needs to sell a couple million t-shirts in order to buy an American airplane.
Well, at the moment Americans are buying these gadgets on borrowed money, not on their incomes, and have been for the past 5 years.

Can you find the labour statistics by sector during Bush's presidency? It seems the jobs created during the dot-com bubble are being outsourced. US computer manufacturers are even outsourcing their R&D so that all they add to what their Taiwanese provides produce is a brand name. How's that for value added? Why should I buy a Dell when I can buy an ASUS or an Acer?

It is not so reasonable to consider countries as single economic agents.
I partly agree.  But keep in mind that countries also, to some extent, turn themselves into economic agents through their legal arrangements.
Except that, for the past, say, 25 years (to use Jerome's convention which ties it to the start of the Reagan/Thatcher era) countries have been eliminating the lagal arrangements that made them single economic agents.

From this

I wasn't aware that I ignored these.  Perhaps you might get into some specifics.
on, you are replying not to objections to you specifically, but to a criticism of the general discourse: Cui bono, who benefits from the flaws in the discourse that some of us perceive?

In the aggregate, comparative advantage suggests that free trade will leave us in better shape, economically
That seems less compelling than the "free trade is the be-all and end-all and the panacea for all our economic problems" which seems to be the order of the day in economic policy making around the world. And, like I said before, free trade is not the same thing as free movement of capital or free movement of labour. It is very different to have several distinct economies which trade among them, than to have what amounts to one big economy.

The original comparative advantage example was assuming that Portugal had an absolute advantage over England in wine and wheat, but to have comparative advantage in wine, and England in wheat. Then it made sense for the UK capital to be dedicated to producing wheat and buying portuguese wine with the wheat, because capital (and labour) had nowhere else to go. In the European Union, it makes more sense for the English capital to be invested in Portugal instead: the English economy gets decapitalized and the English capitalists move to Portuguese villas.

Within single economic units you have sometimes massive rearrangements of capital and labour and extreme hardship results for many, and that's why there are wealth redistribution schemes on a national level. If you're going to have a single integrated world economy (which, I repeat, is not the same thing as several economies with trade) you're going to have to have global wealth redistribution. Otherwise you'll have massive rearrangements of capital and labour and it will hurt.

If you do nothing it will happen all the same. Sure, but then do something. Recognize what is at play and what will happen and steer it.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-done. — John M. Keynes

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 11:13:25 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Well, at the moment Americans are buying these gadgets on borrowed money, not on their incomes, and have been for the past 5 years.

They're certainly buying a lot of stuff on credit.  I agree.

Can you find the labour statistics by sector during Bush's presidency? It seems the jobs created during the dot-com bubble are being outsourced. US computer manufacturers are even outsourcing their R&D so that all they add to what their Taiwanese provides produce is a brand name. How's that for value added? Why should I buy a Dell when I can buy an ASUS or an Acer?

The BLS should have statistics, but I'm not sure how specific they'll be.  Usually, I believe the Labor Department records job creation/loss in manufacturing, government, health, education, service, etc.  Obviously those are quite broad categories.  As of May 2005, there were roughly 26,000 researchers in the "computer and information sciences" (with average pay of a bit over $94,000).  I'm not sure how this compares with the beginning of the Bush presidency, since the BLS site's link only yields one report.

Except that, for the past, say, 25 years (to use Jerome's convention which ties it to the start of the Reagan/Thatcher era) countries have been eliminating the lagal arrangements that made them single economic agents.

Sure, if you only think of legal arrangements as tariffs and subsidies.  Tax policy, the quantity and qualities of regulation, and many other factors can affect the relationship, as well.

Cui bono, who benefits from the flaws in the discourse that some of us perceive?

Are you suggesting that Ricardo invented comparative advantage to cover George W. Bush's ass when Bush sought to ensure Michael Dell's ability to outsource?  We could call it The Ricardo Code.

Look, I'm not denying that businessmen and investors benefit.  I'm simply saying that they're not the only ones who benefit -- that other workers benefit, too, along with consumers as a group; that it's not some sort of Grand Conspiracy of the Evil CapitalistsTM.

That seems less compelling than the "free trade is the be-all and end-all and the panacea for all our economic problems" which seems to be the order of the day in economic policy making around the world. And, like I said before, free trade is not the same thing as free movement of capital or free movement of labour. It is very different to have several distinct economies which trade among them, than to have what amounts to one big economy.

That's because politicians and policy entrepreneurs need to make ideas compelling if they want to be elected -- or, in the latter case, have their favorite candidates elected -- with the ability to push those ideas in legislation.

How would you define free trade if not the free movement of capital and labor?

In the European Union, it makes more sense for the English capital to be invested in Portugal instead: the English economy gets decapitalized and the English capitalists move to Portuguese villas.

If that were the case, wouldn't England look quite different today?  What does the English worker possess that the Portuguese worker lacks?

Where's your motherf*%&ing flag pin?

by Drew J Jones (blahblahblah@blahblahblah.com) on Tue Jun 13th, 2006 at 12:32:27 PM EST
[ Parent ]
How would you define free trade if not the free movement of capital and labor?
The free movement of goods, of course. Moving the products, not the factors of production.

When the capital development of a country becomes a by-product of the activities of a casino, the job is likely to be ill-d