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by ChrisCook
An interesting dialogue with das monde prompted me to create this Diary.
Hmmm. That money is neither debt or claim on debt.
You are correct, I used sloppy language. In fact it is a demand deposit which is an undated non-interest-bearing claim against the bank. On the other side of the bank's balance sheet is their assets, which mainly consist of interest-bearing loans. It is still not clear to me how the money is "destroyed". This is the $64 billion dollar question. I have come to think that a maverick thinker called Steve Consilvio is on the right track here by seeing deficit-based money as a 'mathematical echo'. He also believes - as I do - that profit, by definition, causes inflation, but that is another story. OpEdNews - Diary: Obama: Right and Wrong Every transaction in the economy has a mathematical echo. The goods or services are consumed, but the mathematical value of what was created never expires. The Federal Debt of $13 trillion represents the cumulative value of every transaction for the last 230 years of American history. Other nations have their own numbers, in their own currency. It is all the same phenomenon. He is on the right track because a deficit-based dollar is irredeemable for value, because there is nothing backing it. When a debt is repaid, the debt is cancelled, but the original credit money creation (the mathematical echo) remains, as does the new credit created which was necessary to pay the interest.
Non-performance of loans occurs when the incoming flow of credits slows down or ceases, causing illiquidity. In order to prevent system breakdown, these credits have to be replaced, and this requires new credits, which at the moment can only come from the public sector. If a default event then occurs, then the way I see it the debt is written off, or converted to equity. But the 'mathematical echo' of that debt principal remains as a nominal part of the surreal 'National Debt'. When a credit is paid back with interest, the initial credit amount is presumably canceled and the interest goes to bank's profit. But how does that happen technically? Is it first or last mortgage payments go to bank's profit and CEO bonuses? Or does the bank appropriates all payments, and the money gets really "destroyed" when a bank cannot pay out current cash or transaction requests? What happens is that when there is a repayment: (a) the capital element is credited to the borrower's account as a deduction from principal; (b) the interest element is credited to the bank's Profit and Loss account. The cool bit is that the bank is creating new credit when it debits its P& L and credits its staffs' accounts or pays other costs, or credits the accounts of its shareholders with dividend payments. By doing this a private bank is spending new money into existence. In neither case is credit - the mathematical echo, which is IMHO analogous to a redeemable share - destroyed. The point of the latter is that private banks do not just create credit when they lend money, they also do so when they spend money. Quantitative Easing is what happens when a Central Bank spends money into existence. The normal method is that Treasuries create debt eg T-bills, and private banks spend money into existence which buys that debt and the government's expenditure is thereby 'funded'. I could do the same if I gave you my IOU against value received from someone. If a third party then accepted my IOU from that person in settlement of a debt owed by him then the result is a monetary system. The difference between me and the bank is that I have to provide real value to someone in settlement of my IOU. |
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Money, Credit and Mathematical Echoes | 24 comments (24 topical, 0 editorial, 0 hidden)
Money, Credit and Mathematical Echoes | 24 comments (24 topical, 0 editorial, 0 hidden)
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