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Why do you want treat Germany as if it would still present two different economic and social systems? Just because there is still a process of transferring wealth from the old Laender to the new Laender going on (hopefully, that is) and the two groups have not yet been balanced out (instead of one glass full and one glass empty, we are on the way to get two glasses half full or half empty). But the social and economic system is one and the same now, so you would have to deal with Germany as one nation, who is just going through tough times.

I think one should compare groups of countries, which have similarities within the group, but differences among the groups.

Group   I: US and Britain
Group  II: Germany and France
Group III: Greek, Italy, Spain and Portugal
Group  IV: Poland and Turkey

For group IV I don't know if it makes sense to put them together, as I there economic systems had a different historical development and I have no idea at all about them. But may be just from the point of view how many Polish and Turkish people look for upward mobility and higher incomes in other European countries, they have some sort of similarities.
 

by mimi on Wed Oct 12th, 2005 at 06:58:40 PM EST
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