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Nothing in this paragraph seems to me to support the last sentence. Bolivia did suffer hyperinflation in the 1980s, and its gas exports were under the control of corrupt state-owned companies. But Bolivia was a military dictatorship then. Nationalization under the control of a democratic government is something else entirely.
Does the constitution need to be modified in order to achieve a specific set of economic policies? Sounds excessive to me...but it might make sense in the Bolivian context.
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