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I can't parse that. Could you explain? *Lunatic*, n. One whose delusions are out of fashion.
In both, the fundamental definition seems to be "one who is collecting unemployment benefits." That is, though, where the big difference lay, as German unemployment benefits (pre-Hartz IV, at any rate) are given without time constraint. US unemployment benefits typically run out after 6 months. Americans without jobs get categorized as "discouraged" after a certain amount of time and are statistically dropped from the labor force. In Germany, they remain "unemployed."
Therefore, American unemployment percentages look nicer than German ones would for the same proportion of job-seekers.
I need to do a bit more research on it, but those are the basics.
http://www.destatis.de/presse/englisch/pm2005/p0890031.htm
Following these guidelines, probably closer to American guidelines, unemployment in Germany in January 2005 would have been around 9,4%, the employment/population ratio 67.5.
They´ve got a better (and newer ) overview on another page (in German) from January till June.
http://www.destatis.de/indicators/d/arb410ad.htm
2005 employed unemployed Labour force empl./pop. r. Jun 38,79 3,86 42,66 68,0 May 38,74 4,06 42,80 67,9 Apr 38,65 4,33 42,98 67,8 Mar 38,48 4,30 42,78 67,5 Feb 38,37 4,44 42,81 67,5 Jan 38,33 4,01 42,34 67,4
Apologies for the view. :).
On "understated" US unemployment numbers:
a piece by Paul Krugman who refers to
a study by Katharine Bradbury [pdf], of the Federal Reserve Bank of Boston, and
this post by Brad DeLong
On "understated" UK numbers:
U.K. Employment Paradise Is a Matter of Semantics by Bloomberg columnist Matthew Lynn, who refers to
The Diversion from Unemployment to Sickness [pdf], a study by researchers Christina Beatty and Stephen Fothergill of Sheffield Hallam University.
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