I can't answer right now, because I have to go to work. But thanks so far. What I need to understand exactly in comparison between the US system and the German one, in how far the proportional representation of our parlamentary system with some winner take all components for the direct mandates (I think) compares to the winner take all (and that not for all 50 states in the same manner in the US) reflects the fairness of the intention to represent the people's will of having one man one vote, equally weighted. I know I still haven't thought this through.