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Not coincidentally: property or income requirements for voting rights were de rigueur throughout Europe in the 19th Century.

A society committed to the notion that government is always bad will have bad government. And it doesn't have to be that way. — Paul Krugman
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Tue Mar 28th, 2006 at 07:53:31 AM EST
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Yes, but IIRC the Preussian voting laws were not set to fixed sums but to percentage of the population that earned or owned that much.

So the coincidental thing was the probably unforseen consequences of making a fixed sum a limit, in the US leading to all cases tried by jury and in Sweden to universal suffrage. Of course both these developments could have been halted, but they had the inertia of the established.

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by A swedish kind of death on Tue Mar 28th, 2006 at 08:25:49 AM EST
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