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Yes, it does look like another 50-50 result. I still insist that this is coincidence since I don't see any theoretical explanation that could produce these results in such varied states with such varied election rules (e.g. German mixed system, Czech PR). Still, if someone wants to develop an explanation, I'll be open to it, yet quite skeptical.  
by gradinski chai on Wed Sep 6th, 2006 at 05:39:54 AM EST
Are our political systems getting too efficient at identifying where the political centre lies?

Nothing is 'mere'. — Richard P. Feynman
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Sep 6th, 2006 at 05:42:41 AM EST
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In principle that has to be part of it, as theoretically the "floating voters" are the ones in the centre.

Of course, the system itself can distort which voters get a voice, distorting what the centre converged on is, and hence each country's policies will be built around a different centre.

I guess "converging on the centre" basically implies that the electorate is fundamentally fractured on one axis. (Rich/poor?) In theory states where another consideration is important (e.g. Scottish Nationalists?) the centre might not be converged on in the same manner.

by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Wed Sep 6th, 2006 at 06:56:27 AM EST
[ Parent ]
I asked the same question on my block back in april
by Laurent GUERBY on Wed Sep 6th, 2006 at 09:22:21 AM EST
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