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Is he right? Are capital goods the primary if not only reason that Germany is exporting so little compared to France?
Are you sure that's what you mean?
Germany would be mistaken to believe itself immunized against a strong euro, for it has had a virtual monopoly on exports of capital goods [biens d'équipement] since the end of the 19th century. This is short term thinking, since China is very quickly going to be producing goods at a better price.
True, in part, although not so far. But that's the trigger for a larger discussion, which doesn't answer the question in the diary.
I'd like to ask about the assumptions implicit in the question though. What else is there? Financial goods, service industries. And?
As a meta-note, Jerome a Paris might be doing better than Johan von Berlin in the banking trade, but I don't know how much better, but off hand it's not that much (relative to the figures you're quoting.)
Oops. Corrected now:
Are capital goods the primary if not only reason that Germany is exporting so much compared to France?
To simplify, the Germans sell their Mercedeses to the world and then come and spend their money in the French countryside. Tourism is obviously a much bigger bit of the economy in France.
I could not find the numbers right away, but France has a slight surplus of its capital accounts balance, while Germany actually has a deficit - which simply reflects slightly different structures. In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
So "External balance of goods and services" (Germany: 7.7% of GDP ; France: -2.1% of GDP [for 2006-Q3]) is a totally different beast than "capital accounts balance"?
(I am in dire need of taking Econ 101.) Truth unfolds in time through a communal process.
The number that matters is the change in reserves
Current Account + Capital Account = Change in Official Reserve Account
with Capital account =
Increase in foreign ownership of domestic assets - Increase of domestic ownership of foreign assets In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
Unfortunately, I think I must still be missing something.
On the map on that page, France appears red ("countries in current account deficit, 2005"), while Germany is in blue ("countries in current account surplus").
And on the List of countries and territories by current account balance list referenced at the bottom of that page, the estimate for Germany's 2005 current account balance is $115,500 million, while France's is -$38,780 million.
A negative current account balance means a negative change in official reserve account, doesn't it? Otherwise, maybe the Wikipedia estimates are totally off? Truth unfolds in time through a communal process.
Germany has a large negative capital account balance because they invest a lot more outside of Germany than foreigners invest in Germany. France is the other way round, most years. In the long run, we're all dead. John Maynard Keynes
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