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This comment intrigues me, bellumregio, and I'm not sure I understand it. When you say:

this tradition does not explain the particular combination of asset inflation, debt economy, the shift of risk sharing and labor arbitrage

do you mean, by this tradition, neoliberalism/Washington Consensus, or the C19 British tradition?

I'm not out to make an argumentative point, I'm just interested in what your thinking is. Can you expand?

by afew (afew(a in a circle)eurotrib_dot_com) on Tue Dec 4th, 2007 at 09:38:36 AM EST
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