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Yeah, I wondered that too.  Could be concern about residual responsibility for the actions of previous governments, or it could just be the thing about needing to jump through some hoops at home before they can sign.  I hope someone here might be able to clear that up for us...
by the stormy present (stormypresent aaaaaaat gmail etc) on Wed Feb 7th, 2007 at 12:31:11 PM EST
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Guess it's not the former...

From the convention:

Article 35

  1. The Committee shall have competence solely in respect of enforced disappearances which commenced after the entry into force of this Convention.

  2. If a State becomes a party to this Convention after its entry into force, the obligations of that State vis-à-vis the Committee shall relate only to enforced disappearances which commenced after the entry into force of this Convention for the State concerned.
by the stormy present (stormypresent aaaaaaat gmail etc) on Wed Feb 7th, 2007 at 01:22:21 PM EST
[ Parent ]
The second reason doesn't hold water, at least in the case of Spain. There is an ample majority of both houses of Parliament that would approve of this.

"It's the statue, man, The Statue."
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Feb 7th, 2007 at 02:17:42 PM EST
[ Parent ]
Though see below.

"It's the statue, man, The Statue."
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Thu Feb 8th, 2007 at 05:30:04 AM EST
[ Parent ]

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