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When I hear about automation increasing worker productivity, I sometimes think of the productivity of a factory that only needs one worker -- huge, presumably.

In principle, a factory might need no workers at all. Would worker productivity then be infinite, the denominator having become zero?

Words and ideas I offer here may be used freely and without attribution.

by technopolitical on Fri Mar 30th, 2007 at 03:18:16 AM EST
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