I read the above two charts as saying in chart 1) that clinton's lead is positively correlated both with ward size and count method (machine).

Flipping count method virtually eliminates any correlation between Clinton's lead and ward size.

Ergo - Clinton's lead is actually correlated with ward size, but because that also correlates with count method, it has been confused with the correlation with count method.

Therefore there is no count method fraud.

But why is there such a strong correlation between ward size and clintons's lead?  Can it be explained by demographics, or is it easier to stuff (and hide the stuffing) of a ballot box with extra ballots in a larger ward?

However, for the correlation between Clinton's lead and count size to be so "smooth", the amount of stuffing would also have to be proportionate to ward size.  Do we really think that a fraudster would be that resourceful and clever?

I vote demographic factors...as the more likely explanation, but which ones?  Gender, education, income, race, class.....???  Do we have enough demographic data to come to a conclusion?

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