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OK, I trusted Wikipedia which seemed to overstate the difference.
And I didn't disagree with your assessment. I just meant that population size should not be ignored. And however much I'd like a conclusion to be made, I don't want to sacrifice analytical neutrality in the process.

On the official figures, it's still more than 1M difference by the way, the French economy is not the mainland France economy. But again, I suspect (and gather from articles) that there are many more illegals in the UK than in France.

Officially, per capita GDP is still higher in the UK. I don't think it will still be the case in 12 months time though. This despite having fewer holidays. So, yes, the figures do go against the dogma, and I won't complain. But I always though that they were not particularly useful when using exchange rates in any case. Fluctuations are much too high for the comparison to be significant between two countries that are of similar weight. Let's see in PPP. Looking at the London housing prices, it may not be pretty.

Earth provides enough to satisfy every man's need, but not every man's greed. Gandhi

by Cyrille (cyrillev domain yahoo.fr) on Mon Jan 14th, 2008 at 08:35:40 AM EST
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On the official figures, it's still more than 1M difference by the way, the French economy is not the mainland France economy.

You have a point, however, look at the regional data at INSEE:

  1. the €1,792 billion final total quoted by FT seems to cover DOM-TOM incompletely,
  2. using €1.32 = £1 (the current price is even below that), Metropolitan France's €1,762 billion total for 2006 equals £1,335 billion, still well ahead of the UK's £1,304 billion.


*Lunatic*, n.
One whose delusions are out of fashion.
by DoDo on Mon Jan 14th, 2008 at 12:43:50 PM EST
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