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A t test is specific for small sample populations. Why use Poisson?
by vladimir on Mon Mar 16th, 2009 at 11:39:21 AM EST
[ Parent ]
A t test is specific for Gaussian variables.

Most economists teach a theoretical framework that has been shown to be fundamentally useless. -- James K. Galbraith
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Mon Mar 16th, 2009 at 11:58:49 AM EST
[ Parent ]
And why do you assume that the number of indicted or convicted war criminals per number of civilian casualties follow a Gaussian distribution?
by vladimir on Mon Mar 16th, 2009 at 12:04:07 PM EST
[ Parent ]
I don't, that's why I haven't said you should use a t-test.

Most economists teach a theoretical framework that has been shown to be fundamentally useless. -- James K. Galbraith
by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Mon Mar 16th, 2009 at 12:08:23 PM EST
[ Parent ]
You could say the number of indicted or convicted war criminals is a Poisson distribution with parameter proportional to the number of civilian casualties, and estimate the coefficient of proportionality.

It is not at all obvious that the ratio of indictees to civilians in that case should follow any given distribution, for instace a Gaussian.

Most economists teach a theoretical framework that has been shown to be fundamentally useless. -- James K. Galbraith

by Migeru (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Mon Mar 16th, 2009 at 12:16:15 PM EST
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