"But the Greek CA deficit was not 10 % of GDP when Greece was attacked. It is 10 % of GDP after the ECB-led Troika has destroyed the Greek domestic economy (and thereby cratered GDP) and imposed usurious interest rates on its foreign debts."

(This whole usurious debt is nonsensical. Greece still pays whatever interest rate it did got quite prior to the crisis on most of its debt. Even you can't assume that the new interest rates have already influenced its CA.)

Wait a moment. You are saying all the time that everything depends on CA deficits. But whatever, lets say it was only 8.0% in 2007. So what?

"You are using a snapshot of different points in the business cycle to say something about the relative magnitude of structural variables. That's nonsense."

Of course it is nonsense! Tell that to Migeru and his famous table! Tell that to your reflection in the mirror!

But lets talk about structural CA deficits. All I claimed is that structural CA deficits in Italy and France - not to talk about Ireland and Belgium - are low. A lot lower than in Spain and Greece and Portugal. Isn't that a bit of a problem to your CA hypothesis?