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You are calling me a climate change denier?
No, I'm saying that you're using shit statistics. That .gif was just the most handy one to illustrate your particular brand of statistics mistake. I could have made the same point by stripping it of axis labels and header, but that would have required a .gif-editor.
And why is using 1999 or 2000 as starting point any less arbitrary?
It's not, but it's more likely to be meaningful, for the simple reason that you have a bigger data set. If the longer timeline gives you one trend, and a shorter subset of that timeline gives you the opposite trend, it's the shorter one that's more suspicious.
Economic cycle? Now problem: I will compare the third quarter of 2009 and the third quarter of 2011? Won't make you happier, I guess.
No, it doesn't, because you're still picking out an arbitrary subset after the fact and doing a statistical analysis on that and only that subset. To justify that, you need to argue that (a) something interesting happened to the fundamentals in 2006 (or 2009 if you want to do that) that justifies running a test for breaks in the trend. "It started working in 2006" is not a change that justifies testing for breaks in the data. "The new minimum wage came into force in 2006" is a change that justifies testing for breaks in the data. And (b) your statistical estimator is sound.
You haven't and it isn't.
There are ways to detect breaks in time series. There are ways to take cyclical components out of time series. Just picking a perceived break point or two arbitrary dates out of your time series is not one of them.
- Jake Friends come and go. Enemies accumulate.
As it happens, at least my start point isn't arbitrary at all: growth in Q1 2005: -0.1%, growth in Q2 2005: +0.7. Start of crisis Q2 2008. So I could compare Q1 2005 and Q1 2008 or Q2 2008 and Q2 2008.But you won't like the results either.
And:
>. To justify that, you need to argue that (a) something interesting happened to the fundamentals in 2006 (or 2009 if you want to do that) that justifies running a test for breaks in the trend. "It started working in 2006" is not a change that justifies testing for breaks in the data. "The new minimum wage came into force in 2006" is a change that justifies testing for breaks in the data.>
No problem: Hartz IV started January first 2005. correlation, if you ask me, but you wanted that sort of argument.
So you admit 1999 is as arbitrary? And look, you should admit to yourself that the labour market is not the climate and labour market data not a temperature record. The thirty or forty years you need in climate science don't make much sense in a view at the trends of the labour market. I could start in november 1971, but would that really gave us any useful trend? Or in 1948 or 1919 or 1871 or 1815. Would you really do this?
Depends on what question I wanted answered. If I want to answer the question "what was the impact of German reunification on West German manufacturing?" I would look at the twenty years since and the twenty years preceding reunification. If I want to answer the question "what is the impact of Hartz IV?" I would look at all data since the reunification. Why the reunification? Because that's such a major confounder that disentangling the confounding effects of the reunification will be a bigger project than analysing Hartz IV.
Is this arbitrary? Yes, to some extent. All statistics involves arbitrary judgment calls in specifying your model. But notice that I give reasons for my picking those particular dates. If you can give other reasons for picking other dates, we can have a discussion about which dates are more reasonable. If you just pull a set of dates out of your ass, then we can't have a meaningful conversation about their relevance.
Alternatively, one could go the other way: Use one of the several statistical methods that finds breaks in the data itself, and use the location of those break points to sanity-check one's model of the economy.
I also wanted a properly specified model.
But I can actually well believe that the German "success" since 2006 is due to Hartz IV, because it dovetails nicely with what one would expect from a mercantilist wage suppression strategy. So it's intuitively reasonable.
That is idiotic. I used the same sources of data as the diary under discussion. And as you admitted my end nd start points were as arbitrary or non-arbitrary as in the diary.
>I also wanted a properly specified model.>
A model of what? And why should I care what you wanted?
>But I can actually well believe that the German "success" since 2006 is due to Hartz IV, because it dovetails nicely with what one would expect from a mercantilist wage suppression strategy. So it's intuitively reasonable.>
Your intuition, if you look at the developments of wages since 1990, is wrong. These certainly was no statistical break in 2006.
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