Welcome to European Tribune. It's gone a bit quiet around here these days, but it's still going.
the US suppress worker wages, which suppresses income-financed consumption... Indirectly, this leads to trade deficits

But what makes the difference between US domestic demand suppression and German, that leads to a trade surplus?

I used to be afew. I'm still not many.

by john_evans (john(dot)evans(dot)et(at)gmail(dot)com) on Fri Aug 28th, 2015 at 05:20:41 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Wage suppression + productivity advances lead to a shortage of demand - the nation isn't paying workers enough that they can afford to buy the products, experiences and services those same workers can produce. In a closed system, this would very quickly lead to an economic death spiral as surplus workers are fired leading to even lower demand, ect.

 Germany is avoiding.. well, really, postponing. that problem taking a really insane percentage of the output of German workers, putting it in shipping containers and sending it abroad - not in trade for other goods, because imports are sinful, you know, but essentially to keep people working. just.. because.

The US mechanism of postponement has been to finance the consumption via debt. Instead of paying workers enough to fully mobilize the means of production, the labor force gets a credit line. This results in imports because a lot of said credit is foreign.

by Thomas on Fri Aug 28th, 2015 at 08:22:56 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Yes, the Germans constructed a system to create the credit for intra-EU exports, boosting German exports without raising it's FXR, because its maintaining an artificially low FXR by having countries like Greece in the Eurozone.

Since the FXR rigging is via building a (broken) monetary union instead of by active intervention, the objections to Asian neo-mercantilism are thereby ducked.

I've been accused of being a Marxist, yet while Harpo's my favourite, it's Groucho I'm always quoting. Odd, that.

by BruceMcF (agila61 at netscape dot net) on Fri Aug 28th, 2015 at 10:16:35 AM EST
[ Parent ]
(W)hat makes the difference between US domestic demand suppression and German, that leads to a trade surplus?

In the US elites who had captured control of government proceeded to maximize their persona revenue without regard for the impact on the overall economy because they could. Manufacturing was "offshored" far beyond the ability of the remaining manufacturing sector and other sectors to produce even a neutral trade balance. Germany seems to have acted much more responsibly and with careful attention to trade balances.

"It is not necessary to have hope in order to persevere."
by ARGeezer (ARGeezer a in a circle eurotrib daught com) on Fri Aug 28th, 2015 at 12:32:03 PM EST
[ Parent ]


Occasional Series