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How so?

If polls are less certain then their real margin of error is larger. For example, if TheHill/Harris has Biden at 49 plusminus 2 percent with 95% certainty, then in reality it is closer to 49 plusminus 4 percent with 95% certainty. Or did you mean the other way around, that to get to 49 plusminus 2 percent with 95% certainty they have to increase paricipants until they are at plusminus 1 percent?

by fjallstrom on Mon Nov 2nd, 2020 at 08:35:04 PM EST
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For polls to be 95% certain the margins of error would have to be tighter than they are if there is only an 80% certainty. The way it is stated in the article is ambiguous, IMO.


"It is not necessary to have hope in order to persevere."
by ARGeezer (ARGeezer a in a circle eurotrib daught com) on Tue Nov 3rd, 2020 at 03:59:02 PM EST
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